ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse who is caring for an unresponsive client formulates the nursing diagnosis, 'Risk for Aspiration related to reduced level of consciousness.' The nurse documents this nursing diagnosis as correct based on the understanding that which of the following is a characteristic of this type of diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Is written as a two-part statement. This is because a nursing diagnosis typically consists of two parts: the problem (risk for aspiration) and the related factor (reduced level of consciousness). By using a two-part statement, the nurse clearly identifies the client's current health problem and the underlying reason for it. This format helps in developing appropriate nursing interventions to address the issue. Choice B is incorrect because the nursing diagnosis does not describe the client's response to a health problem; it identifies the potential risk for aspiration. Choice C is incorrect as the diagnosis does not focus on enhancement but rather on potential harm. Choice D is incorrect because the nursing diagnosis is based on the available evidence of the client's reduced level of consciousness, which poses a risk for aspiration.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse administered neutral protamine Hagedorn (NPH) insulin to a diabetic client at 7am. At what time would the nurse expect the client to be at most risk for a hypoglycemic reaction?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale: 1. NPH insulin peaks in 4-12 hours, making 4:00 PM the highest risk time. 2. 10:00 AM is too soon for peak effect. 3. Noon is too early for peak effect. 4. 10:00 PM is too late for peak effect. In summary, B is correct as it aligns with NPH insulin peak time, while other options are too early or too late.
Question 3 of 5
For a patient receiving furosemide, the nurse evaluates the medication as being effective if which of the following effects occurs?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Urine output increased. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by increasing urine output, thus helping to reduce fluid volume in the body. This effect is crucial in managing conditions like heart failure and edema. Increased urine output indicates that the medication is working as intended. Choice B: Heart rate increased is incorrect as furosemide does not directly affect heart rate. Choice C: Serum potassium decreased is incorrect as furosemide can lead to potassium loss, but this is not the primary indicator of its effectiveness. Choice D: Pulse pressure increased is incorrect as furosemide does not typically impact pulse pressure.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse should include in the patient’s teaching plan that if the patient does not take the vitamin B12, which one of the following will develop?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Pernicious anemia. Vitamin B12 is essential for the production of red blood cells, and its deficiency can lead to pernicious anemia, characterized by decreased red blood cell production. Without adequate vitamin B12, the body cannot properly utilize iron, leading to anemia. Iron deficiency anemia (choice A) is a result of insufficient iron levels, not vitamin B12 deficiency. Sickle cell anemia (choice B) is a genetic disorder affecting hemoglobin, not related to vitamin B12 deficiency. Acquired haemolytic anemia (choice D) is caused by the premature destruction of red blood cells, not by vitamin B12 deficiency.
Question 5 of 5
A community nurse will perform chest physiotherapy for Mrs. Dy every 3 hours. It is important for the nurse to:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because performing chest physiotherapy (CPT) at least two hours after meals helps prevent aspiration during the procedure. This timing reduces the risk of vomiting or regurgitation of food during CPT, which could lead to aspiration pneumonia. Slapping the chest wall gently (A) may not effectively clear secretions. Using vibration techniques (B) is not typically recommended for routine CPT. Planning apical drainage at the beginning of the session (D) is not necessary as it is not a standard practice for CPT.
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