ATI RN
Peter Attia Drugs Cardiovascular PCSK9 Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse who administers antipsychotic medication should be ready to explain which neurotransmitters and how they are processed in the brain?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serotonin and dopamine. Antipsychotic medications work by affecting serotonin and dopamine levels in the brain. Dopamine is involved in regulating emotions and movement, while serotonin plays a role in mood regulation. Understanding how these neurotransmitters are processed is crucial for explaining the mechanism of action of antipsychotic drugs. Choice A is incorrect because GABA is not typically targeted by antipsychotic medications. Choice C is incorrect as it refers to structures rather than neurotransmitters. Choice D is incorrect as it mentions monoamine oxidase inhibitors, which are a different class of drugs than antipsychotics, and serotonin, which is relevant but not the primary neurotransmitter targeted by antipsychotic medications.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is presenting a substance-abuse lecture for teenage girls and is asked about “roofies.” The nurse recognizes that this is the slang term for which substance?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: flunitrazepam. Flunitrazepam is commonly known as "roofies" in slang terms. Step 1: Cocaine (A) is a stimulant drug, not associated with the term "roofies." Step 2: Secobarbital (C) is a barbiturate, not commonly referred to as "roofies." Step 3: Methamphetamine (D) is a stimulant drug, not linked to the term "roofies." Therefore, flunitrazepam (B) is the correct answer due to its association with the slang term "roofies" in substance abuse contexts.
Question 3 of 5
A patient is in the emergency department with a new onset of rapid-rate atrial fibrillation, and the nurse is preparing a continuous infusion. Which drug is most appropriate for this dysrhythmia?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 4 of 5
The prescriber has changed the patient’s medication regimen to include the leukotriene receptor antagonist montelukast (Singulair) to treat asthma. The nurse will emphasize which point about this medication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Montelukast is a leukotriene receptor antagonist used for long-term control of asthma symptoms. Step 2: It works by blocking leukotrienes, which are responsible for inflammation and bronchoconstriction in asthma. Step 3: Taking montelukast daily maintains a consistent level in the body to effectively prevent asthma symptoms. Step 4: Even if symptoms improve, discontinuing montelukast abruptly can lead to a recurrence of symptoms. Step 5: Therefore, emphasizing the need for continuous daily use is crucial for optimal asthma management. Summary: A: Inhaler technique is not relevant for montelukast as it is taken orally, not inhaled. B: Montelukast is not a rescue medication for acute asthma attacks; it is for long-term control. D: Tapering or discontinuing montelukast without consulting the prescriber can lead to worsening of symptoms.
Question 5 of 5
What is the reason of complicated penetration of some drugs through brain-blood barrier?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Absence of pores in the brain capillary endothelium. The brain-blood barrier (BBB) is a selective barrier that prevents many substances from freely entering the brain. The brain capillary endothelium does not have pores like other capillaries in the body, making it impermeable to large molecules and pathogens. This selective permeability is crucial for maintaining the brain's delicate environment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because high lipid solubility of a drug, meningitis, and high endocytosis degree in a brain capillary do not directly relate to the complicated penetration of drugs through the BBB.