ATI RN
ATI Hematologic System Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse should identify that clopidogrel is contraindicated for clients who have which of the following conditions?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Clopidogrel is contraindicated for clients with peptic ulcer disease due to its antiplatelet effect, which can increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Myocardial infarction, pancreatitis, and myasthenia gravis are not direct contraindications for clopidogrel. Myocardial infarction can actually be an indication for clopidogrel use to prevent further cardiovascular events. Pancreatitis and myasthenia gravis are not known to have specific contraindications with clopidogrel.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is monitoring a client who is undergoing anticoagulant therapy with heparin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a possible indication of hemorrhage?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rapid pulse. Hemorrhage is a potential complication of anticoagulant therapy with heparin due to the increased risk of bleeding. A rapid pulse can indicate hypovolemia from blood loss, a common sign of hemorrhage. Yellowing of the sclera (choice B) is a sign of jaundice, not directly related to hemorrhage. Elevated blood pressure (choice C) is not typically associated with hemorrhage. Pale-colored stools (choice D) can be indicative of liver or gallbladder issues, but not specifically hemorrhage. Overall, a rapid pulse is the most relevant finding to indicate possible hemorrhage in a client on heparin therapy.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following is a cause of secondary neutropaenia in adults?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Secondary neutropenia in adults is often a part of general pancytopenia, which involves a decrease in all three blood cell types. This can be caused by factors such as bone marrow suppression from chemotherapy, radiation therapy, or certain medications. Neutropenia is not typically congenital or familial in adults, and anti-hypertensive drugs are not commonly known to directly cause secondary neutropenia. Therefore, the correct answer is C as it aligns with the common etiology of secondary neutropenia in adults.
Question 4 of 5
A laboratory finding of aplastic anaemia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pancytopenia. Aplastic anemia is characterized by a decrease in all blood cell types (red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets), leading to pancytopenia. This is due to bone marrow failure, resulting in decreased production of blood cells. Erythrocytosis (B) is an increase in red blood cells, which is the opposite of what is seen in aplastic anemia. Bone marrow hypercellularity (C) is not typically observed in aplastic anemia, as the bone marrow is usually hypocellular. Reticulocytosis (D) is an increase in immature red blood cells and is not a characteristic finding in aplastic anemia where there is decreased production of all blood cell types.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is explaining the role of red blood cells with oxygen transport in the body with a nursing student. Which term should the nurse use to describe hemoglobin that has given up its oxygen to the body's cells?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct term to describe hemoglobin that has given up its oxygen to the body's cells is "Reduced" (Choice A). This term refers to hemoglobin that has released its oxygen molecules and is now in a deoxygenated state. Rationale: 1. Hemoglobin binds to oxygen in the lungs (forming oxyhemoglobin). 2. When hemoglobin reaches the body's cells, it releases oxygen for cellular use. 3. Once hemoglobin releases oxygen, it becomes deoxygenated or "Reduced". Summary: - Choice B (Detached) does not accurately describe the process of oxygen release by hemoglobin. - Choice C (Oxyhemoglobin) refers to hemoglobin bound to oxygen, not hemoglobin that has released oxygen. - Choice D (Hypoxyhemoglobin) would refer to hemoglobin that has a reduced oxygen level, not hemoglobin that has given up its oxygen to the cells.