ATI RN
Cardiovascular System Drugs Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse should evaluate that the medication has helped with the positive (type I) symptoms when there is a decrease in the client's: (Select the one tha does not apply.)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because loose association in thinking is a negative symptom of schizophrenia, not a positive symptom. Positive symptoms include hallucinations and delusions, which are exaggerated behaviors present in schizophrenia. Decrease in auditory hallucinations (A) indicates improvement in positive symptoms. Flat affect (B) and anhedonia (C) are negative symptoms, so improvement in these would not indicate improvement in positive symptoms. Therefore, the correct answer is D as it is a negative symptom, not a positive symptom.
Question 2 of 5
An African American patient has developed hypertension. The nurse is aware that which group(s) of antihypertensive drugs are less effective in African American patients?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Beta blockers and angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors. African American patients tend to have better responses to diuretics and calcium channel blockers compared to beta blockers and ACE inhibitors. This is primarily due to genetic differences in how these drugs are metabolized in the body. Beta blockers and ACE inhibitors may be less effective in African American patients, leading to poorer blood pressure control. Additionally, these medications may have more side effects in this population. Therefore, it is important for healthcare providers to consider these factors when selecting antihypertensive medications for African American patients.
Question 3 of 5
A patient with bipolar disorder has an unstable mood, aggressiveness, agitation, talkativeness, and irritability. The nurse begins care planning based on the expectation that the health care provider is most likely to prescribe a medication classified as a(n):
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: mood stabilizer. For a patient with bipolar disorder experiencing unstable mood, aggressiveness, and talkativeness, a mood stabilizer would be the most appropriate medication. Mood stabilizers help regulate mood swings and prevent episodes of mania or depression. Anticholinergics (choice A) are not typically used to treat bipolar disorder. Psychostimulants (choice C) can exacerbate manic symptoms. Antidepressants (choice D) may trigger manic episodes if used alone without a mood stabilizer. Therefore, the most suitable option to address the symptoms described would be a mood stabilizer.
Question 4 of 5
A patient tells a nurse, “My doctor says my problem may be with the neurotransmitters in my brain. What are neurotransmitters?” The best reply would be:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it provides a clear and concise definition of neurotransmitters as chemical messengers in the brain responsible for brain communication. This response directly addresses the patient's question and educates them on the role of neurotransmitters. Answer A is incorrect as it delays providing the necessary information about neurotransmitters to the patient. Answer B is incorrect as it assumes the patient is concerned about having a serious mental disorder, which may not be the case. Answer C is incorrect as it oversimplifies the treatment of neurotransmitter problems and may give the patient false expectations.
Question 5 of 5
A patient is receiving gabapentin (Neurontin), an anticonvulsant, but has no history of seizures. The nurse expects that the patient is receiving this drug for which condition?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Gabapentin is commonly used to treat neuropathic pain. Step 2: Peripheral neuropathy is a type of nerve damage that causes pain. Step 3: Since the patient has no history of seizures, the most likely reason for receiving gabapentin is to manage pain associated with peripheral neuropathy. Step 4: Therefore, the correct answer is B: Pain associated with peripheral neuropathy. Summary: - Inflammation pain (Choice A) is not typically treated with gabapentin. - Depression associated with chronic pain (Choice C) may be managed with other medications. - Prevention of seizures (Choice D) is the primary indication for gabapentin in patients with a history of seizures, not in this case.