Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

test bank foundations of nursing Questions

Question 1 of 5

A nurse practitioner is examining a patient who presented at the free clinic with vulvar pruritus. For which assessment finding would the practitioner look that may indicate the patient has an infection caused by Candida albicans?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cottage cheese-like discharge. Candida albicans is a common cause of vulvovaginal candidiasis, characterized by itching and cottage cheese-like discharge. This type of discharge is specific to a yeast infection. Yellow-green discharge (choice B) is indicative of trichomoniasis, gray-white discharge (choice C) is seen in bacterial vaginosis, and watery discharge with a fishy odor (choice D) is characteristic of bacterial vaginosis or trichomoniasis. Therefore, the presence of cottage cheese-like discharge is a key indicator of a Candida albicans infection.

Question 2 of 5

A nurse is caring for a 33-year-old male who has come to the clinic for a physical examination. He states that he has not had a routine physical in 5 years. During the examination, the physician finds that digital rectal examination (DRE) reveals stoney hardening in the posterior lobe of the prostate gland that is not mobile. The nurse recognizes that the observation typically indicates what?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Evidence of a more advanced lesion. A stoney hardening in the posterior lobe of the prostate gland that is not mobile is indicative of a more advanced lesion, such as prostate cancer. This finding suggests that the lesion has progressed beyond the early stages. In early prostate cancer, the prostate gland may feel firm but not stoney hard, and the lesion is usually mobile. Metastatic disease would involve spread of the cancer to other parts of the body, which is not evident from the DRE alone. A normal finding would not present as stoney hardening and lack of mobility in the prostate gland during a DRE.

Question 3 of 5

A nurse is using the explanatory model to determinethe etiology of an illness. Which questions should the nurse ask? (Select all that apply.)

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: What do you call your problem? In the explanatory model, this question helps the nurse understand the patient's perspective and cultural beliefs about their illness. By asking how the patient labels their illness, the nurse gains insight into the patient's understanding of the illness, which can influence their treatment adherence and outcomes. The other options are incorrect because: A: How should your sickness be treated? - This question focuses on treatment preferences rather than understanding the patient's beliefs. C: How does this illness work inside your body? - This question is more aligned with the biomedical model, seeking physiological explanations rather than patient perspectives. D: What do you fear most about your sickness? - While important for assessing emotional aspects, this question does not directly address the patient's explanatory model.

Question 4 of 5

A child is undergoing testing for food allergies after experiencing unexplained signs and symptoms of hypersensitivity. What food items would the nurse inform the parents are common allergens?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Eggs and wheat. This is because eggs and wheat are common food allergens in children. Eggs contain proteins that can trigger allergic reactions, while wheat contains gluten, a common allergen. Citrus fruits and rice (choice A) are not common allergens. Root vegetables and tomatoes (choice B) are also less likely to cause allergies. Hard cheeses and vegetable oils (choice D) are not commonly associated with food allergies in children. Therefore, informing the parents about eggs and wheat as common allergens is crucial for the child's testing and management of food allergies.

Question 5 of 5

A patient with preeclampsia is being treated with bed rest and intravenous magnesium sulfate. The drug classification of this medication is a

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: anticonvulsant. Magnesium sulfate is used in the treatment of preeclampsia to prevent seizures, making it an anticonvulsant. It works by reducing neuromuscular excitability and stabilizing nerve cell membranes. Choice A (diuretic) is incorrect because magnesium sulfate does not primarily promote diuresis. Choice B (tocolytic) is incorrect as it does not inhibit uterine contractions. Choice D (antihypertensive) is incorrect because although magnesium sulfate can help lower blood pressure in preeclampsia, its primary indication in this case is for seizure prophylaxis.

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