ATI RN
test bank foundations of nursing Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse practitioner is examining a patient who presented at the free clinic with vulvar pruritus. For which assessment finding would the practitioner look that may indicate the patient has an infection caused by Candida albicans?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cottage cheese-like discharge. Candida albicans is a common cause of vulvovaginal candidiasis, characterized by itching and cottage cheese-like discharge. This type of discharge is specific to a yeast infection. Yellow-green discharge (choice B) is indicative of trichomoniasis, gray-white discharge (choice C) is seen in bacterial vaginosis, and watery discharge with a fishy odor (choice D) is characteristic of bacterial vaginosis or trichomoniasis. Therefore, the presence of cottage cheese-like discharge is a key indicator of a Candida albicans infection.
Question 2 of 9
A patient has been diagnosed with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS). The nurse should encourage what health promotion activity to address the patients hormone imbalance and infertility?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Weight loss. In PCOS, weight loss can help improve hormone balance and fertility by reducing insulin resistance and regulating hormone levels. Excess weight can exacerbate symptoms of PCOS. Kegel exercises (A) are beneficial for pelvic floor strength but do not directly address hormone imbalance. Increased fluid intake (B) is important for overall health but does not specifically target hormone imbalance. Topical antibiotics (D) are unrelated to PCOS treatment.
Question 3 of 9
A patient with preeclampsia is being treated with bed rest and intravenous magnesium sulfate. The drug classification of this medication is a
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: anticonvulsant. Magnesium sulfate is used in the treatment of preeclampsia to prevent seizures, making it an anticonvulsant. It works by reducing neuromuscular excitability and stabilizing nerve cell membranes. Choice A (diuretic) is incorrect because magnesium sulfate does not primarily promote diuresis. Choice B (tocolytic) is incorrect as it does not inhibit uterine contractions. Choice D (antihypertensive) is incorrect because although magnesium sulfate can help lower blood pressure in preeclampsia, its primary indication in this case is for seizure prophylaxis.
Question 4 of 9
A 35-year-old mother of three young children has been diagnosed with stage II breast cancer. After discussing treatment options with her physician, the woman goes home to talk to her husband, later calling the nurse for clarification of some points. The patient tells the nurse that the physician has recommended breast conservation surgery followed by radiation. The patients husband has done some online research and is asking why his wife does not have a modified radical mastectomy to be sure all the cancer is gone. What would be the nurses best response?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: According to current guidelines, breast conservation combined with radiation is as effective as a modified radical mastectomy. 1. Breast conservation surgery followed by radiation is a standard treatment option for early-stage breast cancer. 2. Studies have shown that breast conservation surgery combined with radiation therapy is equally effective in terms of long-term survival rates compared to mastectomy. 3. Current guidelines recommend considering breast conservation surgery as a viable option for patients with early-stage breast cancer. 4. Modified radical mastectomy is not necessarily needed to ensure complete removal of cancer, as breast conservation surgery followed by radiation can achieve the same goal. 5. Therefore, the nurse should reassure the patient's husband that the recommended treatment plan is based on current guidelines and is as effective as a modified radical mastectomy.
Question 5 of 9
The patient is an 80-year-old male who is visiting the clinic today for a routine physical examination. The patient’s skin turgor is fair, but the patient reports fatigue and weakness. The skin is warm and dry, pulse rate is 116 beats/min, and urinary sodium level is slightly elevated. Which instruction should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Drink more water to prevent further dehydration. Given the patient's fair skin turgor, fatigue, weakness, warm and dry skin, elevated pulse rate, and slightly elevated urinary sodium level, these are signs of dehydration. Increasing water intake would help improve the patient's hydration status. Other choices are incorrect because B (calorie-dense fluids) does not address the dehydration issue, C (milk and dairy products) does not directly address the symptoms presented, and D (grapefruit juice) is not essential for hydration in this case.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is teaching the staff about informatics.Which information from the staff indicates the nurse needs to follow up?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Computer competency does not equate to informatics competency. Informatics involves more than just basic computer skills; it encompasses the ability to use technology to manage and analyze data for improved healthcare outcomes. A: This is a correct statement about informatics proficiency. B: This is also a correct statement about the skills needed for informatics. D: This is a true statement about nursing informatics being a recognized specialty, but it does not indicate a need for follow-up. In summary, choice C is incorrect as it oversimplifies the concept of informatics, while choices A, B, and D provide accurate information related to informatics.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse would identify that a colleague needs additional instruction on standard precautions when the colleague exhibits which of the following behaviors?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because putting on a second pair of gloves over soiled gloves during a procedure violates standard precautions by increasing contamination risk. Here's the rationale: 1. Standard precautions require removing soiled gloves before putting on new ones to prevent cross-contamination. 2. Wearing multiple gloves increases the risk of tearing and exposure to pathogens. 3. This behavior shows a lack of understanding of proper infection control practices. Summary of other choices: A: Wearing face protection, gloves, and a gown when irrigating a wound is a correct practice. B: Washing hands with waterless antiseptic after removing soiled gloves is correct. D: Placing a used needle and syringe in a puncture-resistant container without capping the needle is incorrect, but not as severe as choice C.
Question 8 of 9
A smiling patient angrily states, “I will notcough and deep breathe.” How will the nurse interpret this finding?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the patient's affect, which refers to their emotional expression, is inappropriate. The patient is smiling while expressing anger, which is a contradiction. This inconsistency indicates a possible underlying issue such as emotional distress or confusion. Choice A is incorrect because the issue is not about the patient's understanding of the term "cough and deep breathe." Choice B is incorrect as there is no mention of personal space violation. Choice D is incorrect as the issue is not related to the patient's vocabulary but rather their emotional expression.
Question 9 of 9
A patient has been prescribed sildenafil. What should the nurse teach the patient about this medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because sildenafil works by enhancing the effects of nitric oxide, which is released during sexual stimulation to relax the muscles in the penis and increase blood flow for an erection. Therefore, sexual stimulation is necessary for the medication to be effective. Explanation of other choices: B: While sildenafil is typically taken 30 minutes to 4 hours before sexual activity, it does not need to be exactly 1 hour prior. C: Facial flushing and headache are common side effects of sildenafil but do not require immediate reporting unless severe or persistent. D: Sildenafil may cause temporary visual disturbances like changes in color vision, but permanent visual changes are rare.