ATI RN
WGU Pathophysiology Final Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse practitioner is assessing a 7-year-old boy who has been brought to the clinic by his mother, who is concerned about her son's increasingly frequent, severe headaches. Which of the nurse's questions is least likely to yield data that will confirm or rule out migraines as the cause of his problem?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Asking about a history of recent head injury is less likely to yield data relevant to confirming or ruling out migraines. Migraines are often associated with symptoms like nausea, vomiting, sensitivity to light, and a family history of migraines. While head injuries can cause headaches, the focus of the assessment in this case should be on symptoms more specific to migraines to guide the diagnosis and management.
Question 2 of 5
A patient with an 18 pack per year history presents to a family practice clinic complaining of painless hoarseness and inability to clear mucus. A biopsy of respiratory tract cells is taken and shows that these cells have been replaced by less mature squamous epithelium cells. The nurse knows this type of change is referred to as:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Metaplasia is the replacement of one type of cell with another, which can occur in response to chronic irritation, such as from smoking. In this case, the respiratory tract cells being replaced by less mature squamous epithelium cells indicate metaplasia. Dysplasia refers to abnormal development or growth of cells, not replacement; hyperplasia is an increase in the number of cells, not a replacement; and coagulation is a process related to blood clotting, not cell replacement.
Question 3 of 5
A patient's current medical condition is suggestive of impaired erythropoiesis. Which of the following laboratory studies would be most clinically relevant in diagnosing this health problem?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, where impaired erythropoiesis is suspected, the most clinically relevant laboratory studies would focus on red blood cell parameters. Therefore, assessing RBC count, hemoglobin levels, and hematocrit values would provide direct insights into erythropoiesis. Choices A, C, and D are not directly related to erythropoiesis assessment. White blood cell count with a differential is more indicative of immune response and infection. INR and aPTT are coagulation studies, while d-dimer and C-reactive protein levels are more associated with inflammation and thrombotic events.
Question 4 of 5
A 1-year-old child will receive her scheduled MMR vaccination shortly. The nurse should teach the child's parents that she may develop what possible adverse effect related to the administration of this vaccine?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cough and fever. After receiving the MMR vaccine, some children may experience mild adverse effects such as a low-grade fever and a mild cough. These symptoms are normal reactions to the vaccine and indicate that the child's immune system is responding appropriately. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because pallor and listlessness, serum sickness, nausea, and vomiting are not common adverse effects associated with the MMR vaccine in children.
Question 5 of 5
A patient receiving isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (Rifadin) has a decreased urinary output and decreased sensation in his great toes. Which laboratory values should be assessed?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In a patient receiving isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (Rifadin) with symptoms of decreased urinary output and decreased sensation in great toes, assessing urine culture and sensitivity is crucial. These symptoms could indicate peripheral neuropathy, a known side effect of isoniazid, and rifampin can cause renal toxicity. Checking for any urinary tract infection or drug-induced nephrotoxicity is important. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the symptoms presented by the patient or the potential side effects of the medications mentioned.