A nurse practitioner is assessing a 55-year-old male patient who is complaining of perineal discomfort, burning, urgency, and frequency with urination. The patient states that he has pain with ejaculation. The nurse knows that the patient is exhibiting symptoms of what?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Prostatitis. The patient's symptoms of perineal discomfort, burning, urgency, frequency with urination, and pain with ejaculation are indicative of prostatitis. Prostatitis is inflammation of the prostate gland, leading to these symptoms. Varicocele (A) is an enlargement of the veins within the scrotum, usually painless. Epididymitis (B) is inflammation of the epididymis, causing scrotal pain and swelling. Hydrocele (D) is a fluid-filled sac around the testicle, typically painless. The patient's symptoms align most closely with prostatitis due to the involvement of the prostate gland and the specific urinary and ejaculatory symptoms experienced.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Personality changes. Metastases to the brain can affect cognitive function and behavior, leading to personality changes. This is due to the impact on specific areas of the brain responsible for personality and behavior. Chronic pain (A) is more commonly associated with advanced cancer and not specific to brain metastases. Respiratory distress (B) is more likely related to lung cancer itself, not brain metastases. Fixed pupils (C) may indicate brainstem involvement, but personality changes are a more direct and common manifestation of brain metastases.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vulvodynia. Vulvodynia is characterized by chronic vulvar pain or discomfort, including stabbing pain and burning, without an identifiable cause. In this case, the young girl is experiencing these symptoms despite not being sexually active, ruling out other conditions like vulvitis (inflammation of the vulva), vaginitis (inflammation of the vagina), and Bartholin's cyst (fluid-filled swelling near the vaginal opening). The absence of sexual activity suggests that the pain is not related to an infection or trauma, further supporting the diagnosis of vulvodynia.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Correct Answer: B - Urge urinary incontinence Rationale: 1. The patient's symptoms of strong desire to void and leakage on the way to the toilet indicate urge urinary incontinence. 2. Urge urinary incontinence is characterized by a sudden, strong need to urinate with involuntary leakage. Incorrect Choices: A: Functional urinary incontinence - This type is due to factors such as cognitive or physical impairment, not a strong urge to void. C: Impaired skin integrity - While important, this is a potential consequence of urinary incontinence, not the priority nursing diagnosis. D: Urinary retention - This would present with the inability to empty the bladder, not symptoms of frequent urge to void and leakage.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Ensuring patient privacy. In the PLISSIT model, ensuring patient privacy is crucial as it creates a safe and confidential environment for discussing sensitive topics like sexual health. This step helps build trust and allows the patient to feel comfortable sharing intimate details. Briefly teaching about normal sexual physiology (A) may come later in the assessment process. Assuring confidentiality (B) is important but doesn't address the immediate need for privacy. Asking if the patient is willing to discuss sexual functioning (C) assumes patient readiness without first establishing a private setting.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The nurse sitting at the patient's bedside is using the personal zone of personal space, which ranges from 18 inches to 4 feet. This distance allows for a close interaction suitable for taking a nursing history while maintaining a professional yet personal connection. The socio-consultative zone (A) is 4-12 feet, more appropriate for professional interactions. The intimate zone (C) is 0-18 inches, too close for an initial nursing history. The public zone (D) is 12 feet or more, too distant for a personal conversation.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because in Goodpasture syndrome, the patient's immune system mistakenly targets normal constituents of the body, specifically the basement membrane of the kidneys and lungs. This autoimmune response leads to inflammation and damage in these organs, resulting in respiratory and renal dysfunction. Choice A is incorrect as immune complexes are not the primary mechanism in Goodpasture syndrome. Choice C is incorrect as it refers to T cell-mediated immune responses, which are not the main drivers in this condition. Choice D is incorrect as histamine release and cell lysis are not the main processes involved in Goodpasture syndrome.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because giving a hypertonic solution enema to a patient with fluid volume excess can worsen the condition by drawing more fluid into the colon. This can lead to further fluid volume overload and electrolyte imbalances. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Normal saline enema is appropriate for constipation. C: Kayexalate enema is used to treat hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. D: Oil retention enema is indicated for constipation to soften stool.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Charts legibly. This is accurate legally because clear and legible documentation is crucial for accurately conveying patient information, ensuring continuity of care, and meeting legal standards. Illegible handwriting can lead to errors in patient care and legal issues. Choice B is incorrect as labeling a patient as "belligerent" without evidence can be perceived as unprofessional and potentially harmful to the patient. Choice C is incorrect as writing an entry for another nurse can lead to inaccurate documentation and legal consequences. Choice D is incorrect because using correction fluid can raise suspicion of tampering with records and compromise the integrity of the documentation.