A nurse plans care based upon the fact that anticipatory grief:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because anticipatory grief allows individuals to gradually accept the impending loss, leading to fewer feelings of guilt. This process helps the individual prepare emotionally and psychologically for the eventual loss, reducing guilt related to not being able to prevent it. Choice B is incorrect because anticipatory grief does not prevent symptoms of depression, but rather helps individuals cope with them. Choice C is incorrect as anticipatory grief does not necessarily require a longer period of time for resolution; it varies for each individual. Choice D is incorrect, as mentioned earlier, because anticipatory grief does not prevent symptoms of depression but helps individuals navigate through them.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (A): Reporting the findings to the health care provider is the next best action because elevated BUN and creatinine levels indicate possible renal dysfunction, which could be causing the psychiatric symptoms. The health care provider needs this information to determine appropriate treatment and further evaluation. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B: Assessing the patient for a history of renal problems is not the next best action because the lab results already indicate potential renal issues. C: Assessing the patient’s family history for cardiac problems is irrelevant to the elevated BUN and creatinine levels and the psychiatric symptoms. D: Arranging for the patient’s hospitalization on the psychiatric unit is premature without addressing the underlying medical issue indicated by the lab results.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because haloperidol is a dopamine receptor antagonist. By blocking dopamine receptors, it reduces the activity of dopamine in the brain, which helps in reducing disturbed thought processes. Option A is incorrect as dopamine craving is not related to the mechanism of action of haloperidol. Option B is incorrect as enhancing dopamine receptors would increase dopamine activity, opposite to the intended effect of haloperidol. Option C is incorrect as increasing cellular production of dopamine would also increase dopamine activity, contradicting the purpose of using haloperidol.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because consistent inappropriate laughing is a characteristic symptom of disorganized schizophrenia. This observation aligns with the disorganized behavior and affect commonly seen in this subtype of schizophrenia. Option A is not specific to disorganized schizophrenia. Option B does not directly relate to disorganized symptoms. Option D suggests paranoia, which is more indicative of paranoid schizophrenia rather than disorganized schizophrenia.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because adjunct therapies provide the patient with the opportunity to use ego-protective mechanisms, such as denial or displacement, which can help them cope with difficult emotions or situations more effectively. This is important in situations where verbal therapies may not be as effective in reaching the patient's underlying emotional needs. Choice A is incorrect because adjunct therapies may require specific training or expertise to facilitate effectively. Choice B is incorrect because while adjunct therapies can allow for expression of feelings, they do not necessarily do so on multiple levels simultaneously. Choice D is also incorrect because the availability of adjunct therapies in the treatment setting does not necessarily make them more useful than verbal therapies.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: ECT induces a grand mal seizure. This indicates learning has occurred because ECT does indeed induce a controlled grand mal seizure to treat severe depression. Euphoria (A) and catatonia (C) are not accurate states induced by ECT. A petit mal seizure (D) is a mild form of seizure not associated with ECT.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tourette’s disorder. The child's inability to sit still and jerking arms suggest motor tics, which are common in Tourette's disorder. Tourette's is characterized by involuntary repetitive movements or sounds. Choice A is incorrect as oppositional-defiant disorder does not involve physical tics. Choice C is a duplicate. Choice D is incorrect as it assumes defiance rather than considering a neurological explanation for the behavior.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because discussing feelings about leaving the group and the support found within the group is crucial during the termination phase. This allows for processing emotions, reflecting on progress, and providing closure. Choice A focuses on future goals, not on the current phase. Choice B addresses time constraints, not emotional support. Choice C is about coping strategies, which may not be the priority during termination. Thus, D is the most appropriate intervention for this phase.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (C): Multidisciplinary collaboration in therapeutic activities involves the input of professionals from various disciplines, leading to a holistic approach that considers all aspects of a patient's condition. This approach is more likely to result in better outcomes because it combines diverse perspectives, expertise, and skills to address complex patient needs comprehensively. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Reducing aggressive behavior is not the primary goal of multidisciplinary collaboration in therapeutic activities. B: While multidisciplinary collaboration may lead to efficient care, the primary focus is on achieving better outcomes rather than quicker discharge. D: Although improving staffing efficiency and resource allocation may be benefits of multidisciplinary collaboration, the main purpose is to enhance patient care outcomes through diverse perspectives and expertise.