A nurse performs an assessment on a patient. Which assessment data will the nurse use as an etiology for Acute pain?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Disruption of tissue integrity. Acute pain is typically caused by tissue damage or injury, such as a cut or a burn. The nurse would use this assessment data as an etiology for acute pain because it directly relates to the source of the pain. Discomfort while changing position (A) is a symptom of pain but does not provide the underlying cause. Reports pain as a 7 on a 0 to 10 scale (B) is a pain intensity rating and does not explain the cause of the pain. Dull headache (D) is a specific type of pain but is not relevant to the given scenario of tissue disruption.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Taking a walk outside. Patients with lymphoma have weakened immune systems, making them more susceptible to infections. Walking outside exposes them to various environmental pathogens, increasing the risk of infection. Going to church (A) and cleaning the house (B) can be done in controlled environments, while watching television (D) does not involve exposure to external pathogens like going for a walk outside does. Therefore, taking a walk outside poses the highest risk for infection among the given activities.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because learning esophageal speech involves creating sound by pushing air from the mouth into the esophagus and then releasing it. Following laryngectomy surgery, the patient's larynx is removed, making it impossible to produce sound in this manner. Placing a finger over the stoma (A) allows the patient to redirect air through the mouth for speech, using a picture board (B) enables communication through written or visual cues, and using a special valve that diverts air into the trachea (C) allows for voice rehabilitation. In summary, options A, B, and C are valid communication methods post-laryngectomy surgery, while option D is not feasible due to the absence of the larynx.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Muscle weakness. Metolazone is a diuretic that can lead to low potassium levels, causing muscle weakness. Instructing the patient to report muscle weakness is crucial to prevent any potential serious complications. Numb hands, gastrointestinal distress, and nightmares are not commonly associated with metolazone and do not pose as immediate risks as muscle weakness does. It is essential to prioritize the most critical side effect to ensure the patient's safety and well-being.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Vitamin B12 is absorbed in the small intestine with the help of intrinsic factor produced by parietal cells in the stomach. Step 2: Intrinsic factor binds to vitamin B12, forming a complex that is then absorbed in the ileum. Step 3: If intrinsic factor is lacking (as seen in pernicious anemia), vitamin B12 absorption is impaired, leading to megaloblastic anemia. Step 4: Administering cyanocobalamin bypasses the need for intrinsic factor. Step 5: Thus, intrinsic factor influences Vitamin B12 absorption. Other choices (B, C, D) do not play a direct role in Vitamin B12 absorption.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because hanging the chest drainage system on the top of the wheelchair backrest ensures that the system remains upright and secured during transportation, reducing the risk of accidental disconnection or leakage. Placing it on the patient's feet (B), hanging it with the IV pole (C), or placing it in the patient's lap (D) can lead to potential complications such as pulling or kinking the drainage tubing, increasing the risk of infection or injury to the patient.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Offering emotional support. In the preoperative phase, a nurse's role includes comforting and reassuring the patient to reduce anxiety and promote emotional well-being. This is crucial for the patient's overall experience and can positively impact their recovery. Obtaining preoperative orders (A) is typically the responsibility of the physician. Explaining the surgical procedure (C) is usually done by the surgeon. Providing informed consent (D) involves ensuring the patient understands the risks and benefits of the procedure, which is typically the responsibility of the healthcare provider performing the procedure.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: To prevent cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage. Rationale: During a spinal block, the anesthesiologist injects anesthesia into the subarachnoid space, which contains CSF. Proper positioning ensures that the anesthesia stays in place and prevents leakage of CSF, which could lead to complications such as post-dural puncture headache. Incorrect choices: A: To prevent confusion - Irrelevant to the procedure. C: To prevent seizures leakage - Seizures are not a concern with spinal blocks. D: To prevent cardiac arrhythmias - Cardiac arrhythmias are not directly related to spinal blocks.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. In hypothyroidism, the thyroid gland is underactive, leading to symptoms like puffiness of the face and hands due to fluid retention. This occurs as a result of decreased metabolism. Options A and B are symptoms of hyperthyroidism, where the thyroid gland is overactive. Option D is a symptom of goiter, which is thyroid gland swelling, not specific to hypothyroidism. Therefore, the correct answer is C based on the characteristic symptoms of hypothyroidism.