ATI RN
Introduction to Nursing Final Exam Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse on the postoperative nursing unit provides care to reduce the incidence of surgical wound infection. What actions are best to achieve this goal? (Select the one that does not apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. Administering antibiotics for 72 hours is not within the nurse's scope of practice but the physician's responsibility. 2. Disposing of dressings properly prevents contamination and infection. 3. Leaving draining wounds open to air can introduce pathogens and hinder healing. 4. Performing proper hand hygiene reduces the transfer of pathogens to the wound site.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse should plan to use a wet-to-dry dressing for which patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Correct Answer: D Rationale: Wet-to-dry dressing is used for wounds with purulent drainage to promote healing by mechanical debridement. Purulent drainage indicates infection, making it necessary to remove dead tissue. Dry brown areas suggest necrosis, which requires removal to allow healthy tissue regeneration. Wet-to-dry dressing helps in this process by moistening the wound, facilitating the removal of necrotic tissue with each dressing change. This promotes a clean wound bed conducive to healing. Summary of Other Choices: A: Pink granulation tissue indicates healing, not requiring mechanical debridement. B: Surgical incision with pink, approximated edges indicates a well-healing wound, not requiring wet-to-dry dressing. C: Full-thickness burn with dry, black material suggests eschar formation, which requires specialized burn care, not wet-to-dry dressing.
Question 3 of 5
A patient has had recent mechanical heart valve surgery and is receiving anticoagulant therapy. While monitoring the patient‘s laboratory work, the nurse interprets that the patient‘s international normalized ratio (INR) level of 3 indicates that:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: the patient's warfarin dose is at therapeutic levels. An INR level of 3 indicates the patient's blood is anticoagulated within the therapeutic range for mechanical heart valve surgery. This level helps prevent blood clots while minimizing the risk of bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because an INR of 3 is not too low for warfarin therapy, not indicative of dangerously high heparin dose, and not related to heparin therapy. Overall, an INR of 3 is within the desired range for anticoagulation therapy post mechanical heart valve surgery.
Question 4 of 5
A patient who has recently started taking pravastatin (Pravachol) and niacin reports several symptoms to the nurse. Which information is most important to communicate to the health care provider?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Generalized muscle aches and pains. This is important to communicate as it could indicate rhabdomyolysis, a serious side effect of statin therapy like pravastatin. Rhabdomyolysis can lead to muscle breakdown and kidney damage, requiring immediate medical attention. Choice B is less urgent and can be managed by advising the patient to change positions slowly. Choice C is a common side effect of niacin but is not as serious as potential muscle issues. Choice D, flushing and pruritus, are common side effects of niacin and are generally not as concerning as muscle symptoms.
Question 5 of 5
An emergency department nurse assesses a female client. Which assessment findings would alert the nurse to request a prescription for an electrocardiogram? (Select the one that does not apply.)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Abdominal pain does not typically prompt a need for an electrocardiogram (ECG) as it is not a common symptom associated with cardiac issues. Hypertension (A), fatigue despite adequate rest (B), and indigestion (C) are all potential signs of underlying cardiac problems that could necessitate an ECG to assess the heart's electrical activity. Abdominal pain is more likely related to gastrointestinal issues rather than cardiac concerns.