ATI RN
test bank foundations of nursing Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse knows of several patients who have achieved adequate control of their allergy symptoms using over-the-counter antihistamines. Antihistamines would be contraindicated in the care of which patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Antihistamines are generally considered safe during pregnancy, but it is recommended to avoid unnecessary medications, especially in the third trimester. Antihistamines should be used cautiously in pregnant women due to potential effects on the fetus. Choice A is incorrect because previous treatment for tuberculosis does not contraindicate the use of antihistamines. Choice C is incorrect as estrogen-replacement therapy does not interact significantly with antihistamines. Choice D is incorrect as a severe allergy to eggs does not directly contraindicate the use of antihistamines.
Question 2 of 9
During a recent visit to the clinic a woman presents with erythema of the nipple and areola on the right breast. She states this started several weeks ago and she was fearful of what would be found. The nurse should promptly refer the patient to her primary care provider because the patients signs and symptoms are suggestive of what health problem?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Erythema of nipple/areola in one breast can be a sign of Paget's disease, a rare form of breast cancer. 2. Paget's disease may also present with itching, tingling, or a burning sensation in the affected area. 3. Referring the patient promptly is crucial for early detection and appropriate management. 4. Peau d'orange (A) is a sign of advanced breast cancer, not typically presenting with erythema alone. 5. Nipple inversion (B) may be benign or related to other conditions, not typically presenting with erythema. 6. Acute mastitis (D) presents with breast pain, warmth, swelling, and fever, but not typically with isolated erythema of the nipple/areola.
Question 3 of 9
A patient has been diagnosed with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS). The nurse should encourage what health promotion activity to address the patients hormone imbalance and infertility?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Weight loss. In PCOS, weight loss can help improve hormone balance and fertility by reducing insulin resistance and regulating hormone levels. Excess weight can exacerbate symptoms of PCOS. Kegel exercises (A) are beneficial for pelvic floor strength but do not directly address hormone imbalance. Increased fluid intake (B) is important for overall health but does not specifically target hormone imbalance. Topical antibiotics (D) are unrelated to PCOS treatment.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following nurses actions carries the greatest potential to prevent hearing loss due to ototoxicity?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because being aware of patients' medication regimens allows nurses to identify and monitor ototoxic medications that can cause hearing loss. By collaborating with other professionals, nurses can adjust medications or recommend alternative treatments to prevent or minimize ototoxicity. This proactive approach directly targets the root cause of potential hearing loss. A: Understanding types of hearing loss is important but does not directly prevent ototoxicity. B: Educating about age-related changes in hearing does not address ototoxicity prevention. C: Educating about noise exposure risks is important for overall hearing health but does not specifically prevent ototoxicity.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is providing health education to a patient newly diagnosed with glaucoma. The nurse teaches the patient that this disease has a familial tendency. The nurse should encourage the patients immediate family members to undergo clinical examinations how often?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: At least once every 2 years. Glaucoma has a familial tendency, meaning it can run in families. Regular eye exams are crucial for early detection and treatment. Having family members undergo clinical examinations every 2 years allows for timely identification of any potential signs of glaucoma. Monthly exams (A) would be too frequent and unnecessary. Exams every 5 years (C) or 10 years (D) are too infrequent and may miss early signs of the disease. Regular biennial exams strike a balance between early detection and practicality.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is preparing a patient for a magneticresonance imaging (MRI) scan. Which nursing action ismostimportant?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Correct Answer: D - Removing all of the patient’s metallic jewelry. Rationale: 1. Safety: Metallic objects can be attracted by the MRI magnet, causing harm to the patient and disrupting the imaging process. 2. Artifact Prevention: Metallic objects can produce artifacts on the MRI images, affecting the diagnostic quality. 3. Patient Comfort: Removing jewelry ensures the patient's comfort during the scan, avoiding discomfort or injury. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Not eating or drinking before an MRI is important, but it is not the most crucial action compared to patient safety and image quality. B: Colon cleansing may be necessary for certain types of MRI scans, but it is not universally required and is not the most important action. C: Pain medication may be important for patient comfort, but it is not essential for the actual MRI procedure and does not impact safety or image quality.
Question 7 of 9
The patient is to receive multiple medications via the nasogastric tube. The nurse is concerned that the tube may become clogged. Which action isbestfor the nurseto take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (D): Checking with the pharmacy for availability of liquid forms of medications is the best action because it reduces the risk of clogging the nasogastric tube. Liquid medications are less likely to cause blockages compared to nonliquid medications. Additionally, liquid forms are easier to administer through the tube. By using liquid medications, the nurse can ensure that the medications flow smoothly through the tube without causing any obstructions. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Instilling nonliquid medications without diluting can increase the risk of tube clogging. B: Irrigating the tube with water after all medications are given may not prevent clogging effectively and could introduce unnecessary moisture into the tube. C: Mixing all medications together can lead to potential drug interactions and may not address the issue of tube clogging effectively.
Question 8 of 9
The clinic nurse is assessing a child who has been brought to the clinic with signs and symptoms that are suggestive of otitis externa. What assessment finding is characteristic of otitis externa?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Pain on manipulation of the auricle is characteristic of otitis externa. This is because otitis externa is an infection or inflammation of the outer ear canal, causing pain and tenderness when the ear is touched or manipulated. A: Tophi on the pinna and ear lobe is characteristic of gout, not otitis externa. B: Dark yellow cerumen in the external auditory canal is common and not specific to otitis externa. D: Air bubbles visible in the middle ear are associated with otitis media, not otitis externa. In summary, pain on manipulation of the auricle is a key assessment finding in otitis externa, distinguishing it from other ear conditions.
Question 9 of 9
Which form of heart disease in women of childbearing years usually has a benign effect on pregnancy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mitral valve prolapse. This condition is usually benign during pregnancy because the heart's workload increases, and the mitral valve is a one-way valve that prevents blood from flowing back into the left atrium. Mitral valve prolapse typically does not significantly affect the heart's ability to pump blood efficiently during pregnancy. Rationale: 1. Cardiomyopathy (A) can worsen during pregnancy, leading to complications for both the mother and the fetus. 2. Rheumatic heart disease (C) can cause valve damage, increasing the risk of complications during pregnancy. 3. Congenital heart disease (D) varies in severity and can pose risks during pregnancy, depending on the specific condition. Summary: Mitral valve prolapse is the correct answer as it is less likely to cause significant issues during pregnancy compared to the other options provided.