ATI RN
Mental Health Final ATI Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is working as part of an interdisciplinary treatment team caring for patients with psychiatric disorders. Based on the nurse's understanding of cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) and its limitations cited by critics, the nurse would identify which patient as an inappropriate candidate for CBT?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, a patient diagnosed with schizophrenia. CBT may not be suitable for individuals with severe cognitive impairments like those with schizophrenia. Schizophrenia can affect a person's ability to engage in cognitive processes necessary for CBT, such as reality testing and cognitive restructuring. Patients with schizophrenia may struggle with delusions, hallucinations, and disorganized thinking, making it challenging to benefit from traditional CBT techniques. Substance abuse (A), depression (B), and eating disorders (D) are conditions that have shown to respond well to CBT techniques, making them appropriate candidates for treatment.
Question 2 of 5
As part of a community program on crisis prevention, a nurse is describing the phases of crisis. Which of the following would the nurse identify as occurring first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Problem stimulating usual problem solving. In crisis intervention, the first phase is when the individual encounters a problem that triggers their usual problem-solving skills. This initial phase involves recognizing the crisis and attempting to assess and address the problem. This sets the stage for further crisis intervention strategies. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect: B: Trial and error attempts to alleviate problem - This typically occurs after the crisis has been recognized and initial problem-solving attempts have been made. C: Automatic relief behaviors take over - This is more likely to be a coping mechanism employed after the crisis has escalated and the individual is seeking immediate relief. D: Serious personality disorganization - This usually occurs in the later stages of a crisis when the individual's ability to cope is severely compromised.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client in the outpatient setting who has been diagnosed with a depressive disorder. Before the client is given a prescription for a tricyclic antidepressant, assessment for which of the following would be most important?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Suicide. Assessing for suicide risk is crucial before prescribing a tricyclic antidepressant due to the potential increase in suicidal ideation in the initial phase of treatment. Suicide risk assessment helps in determining the level of monitoring and support needed for the client. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as hypersomnia, cardiac arrhythmia, and erectile dysfunction are not directly related to the initiation of tricyclic antidepressants and do not pose an immediate risk to the client's safety compared to suicidal ideation.
Question 4 of 5
A client has been prescribed naltrexone (Trexan) for treatment of alcohol dependence. The nurse has explained the drug's purpose to the client. The nurse determines that the client has understood the instructions when the client identifies which of the following about the drug?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Reduces the appeal of alcohol. Naltrexone is an opioid antagonist that works by blocking the euphoric effects of alcohol, reducing cravings, and decreasing the desire to drink. By choosing this answer, the client demonstrates an understanding of naltrexone's mechanism of action in treating alcohol dependence. A: Causes itching if alcohol is consumed - This statement is incorrect. Naltrexone does not cause itching if alcohol is consumed. It works by blocking opioid receptors, not by producing physical side effects like itching. B: Produces the euphoria of alcohol - This statement is incorrect. Naltrexone actually blocks the euphoric effects of alcohol, making it less appealing and reducing the desire to drink. D: Improves appetite and nutritional status - This statement is incorrect. Naltrexone does not directly affect appetite or nutritional status. Its primary purpose is to help with alcohol dependence by reducing cravings and the pleasure associated with drinking.
Question 5 of 5
A client with erectile dysfunction who is prescribed sildenafil asks the nurse, 'When should I take the medication?' Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Take it about ½ to 2 hours before you have sexual activity." This is the most appropriate response because sildenafil takes about 30 minutes to 1 hour to start working, with peak effectiveness around 1 to 2 hours after ingestion. Taking it too early or too late can affect its efficacy. Choice A is incorrect as timing should be based on sexual activity, not just morning routine. Choice C is incorrect as 5 minutes is too short for sildenafil to take effect. Choice D is incorrect as taking it at night may not align with the intended purpose of improving erectile function during sexual activity.