ATI RN
foundation of nursing questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse is using core measures to reduce healthdisparities. Which group should the nurse focus on to cause themost improvement in core measures?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Poor people. Focusing on poor people is likely to cause the most improvement in core measures because individuals living in poverty often face multiple barriers to accessing healthcare and have higher rates of chronic conditions. By targeting this group, the nurse can address social determinants of health, improve healthcare access, and address disparities in healthcare outcomes. Other choices (A, C, D) are not as impactful as poverty is a significant factor influencing health disparities.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is caring for an 8-year-old patient whois embarrassed about urinating in bed at night. Which intervention should the nurse suggest to reduce the frequency of this occurrence?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: “Drink your nightly glass of milk earlier in the evening.” By suggesting the patient to drink milk earlier, it allows more time for the body to process and excrete the fluids before bedtime, reducing the likelihood of bedwetting. This intervention targets the root cause of the issue by addressing the timing of fluid intake. Explanation for why the other choices are incorrect: A: “Set your alarm clock to wake you every 2 hours, so you can get up to void.” This intervention disrupts the patient's sleep pattern and may not address the underlying cause of bedwetting. B: “Line your bedding with plastic sheets to protect your mattress.” This intervention focuses on managing the consequences of bedwetting rather than preventing it. D: “Empty your bladder completely before going to bed.” While important, this suggestion alone may not be sufficient to address the timing of fluid intake, which is crucial in reducing bedwetting frequency.
Question 3 of 9
A placenta previa when the placental edge just reaches the internal os is called
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, marginal. Placenta previa is classified based on the proximity of the placental edge to the internal os. In a marginal placenta previa, the placental edge just reaches the internal os. This is a crucial distinction as it poses a higher risk for bleeding during labor. Total placenta previa covers the entire internal os, partial placenta previa partially covers the internal os, and low-lying placenta is when the placenta is close to but not covering the internal os. Therefore, D is correct as it accurately describes the specific position of the placenta edge in relation to the internal os in cases of marginal placenta previa.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse on the medicalsurgical unit is reviewing discharge instructions with a patient who has a history of glaucoma. The nurse should anticipate the use of what medications?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cholinergics. Glaucoma is a condition characterized by increased intraocular pressure due to impaired drainage of aqueous humor. Cholinergics help to constrict the pupil and improve the outflow of aqueous humor, thus reducing intraocular pressure. This medication class is commonly used to manage glaucoma. A: Potassium-sparing diuretics are not typically used in the treatment of glaucoma. They are mainly used to manage conditions like hypertension and heart failure. C: Antibiotics are not indicated for the routine management of glaucoma. They are used to treat infections. D: Loop diuretics are not commonly used in the treatment of glaucoma. They are primarily used to manage conditions like edema and hypertension.
Question 5 of 9
Anti-infective prophylaxis is indicated for a pregnant patient with a history of mitral valve stenosis related to rheumatic heart disease because the patient is at risk of developing
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: bacterial endocarditis. Mitral valve stenosis increases the risk of bacterial endocarditis due to turbulent blood flow and potential damage to the heart valve. Prophylactic antibiotics are recommended before certain procedures to prevent bacterial endocarditis in patients with underlying cardiac conditions. Choice A, hypertension, is incorrect as mitral valve stenosis does not directly increase the risk of developing hypertension. Choice B, postpartum infection, is not directly related to the risk associated with mitral valve stenosis. Choice D, upper respiratory infections, is not a specific risk associated with mitral valve stenosis in pregnant patients.
Question 6 of 9
A 62-year-old woman diagnosed with breast cancer is scheduled for a partial mastectomy. The oncology nurse explained that the surgeon will want to take tissue samples to ensure the disease has not spread to adjacent axillary lymph nodes. The patient has asked if she will have her lymph nodes dissected, like her mother did several years ago. What alternative to lymph node dissection will this patient most likely undergo?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Sentinel node biopsy. This procedure involves identifying and removing the sentinel lymph node(s) which is the first lymph node(s) that cancer cells are likely to spread to from the primary tumor. This method helps determine if cancer has spread beyond the primary site without the need for a full axillary lymph node dissection. It is less invasive, has fewer side effects, and provides accurate staging information. Lymphadenectomy (A) refers to the removal of multiple lymph nodes, which is more extensive than necessary in this case. Needle biopsy (B) and open biopsy (C) are not specific to lymph node evaluation and do not provide accurate staging information for breast cancer.
Question 7 of 9
A clinic nurse is providing preprocedure education for a man who will undergo a vasectomy. Which of the following measures will enhance healing and comfort? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Abstaining from sexual intercourse for at least 14 days postprocedure. This is important to allow the surgical site to heal properly and reduce the risk of complications. Choice B, wearing a scrotal support garment, can provide comfort but does not directly enhance healing. Choice C, using sitz baths, may help with discomfort but may not specifically promote healing. Choice D, applying a heating pad intermittently, could potentially increase the risk of infection. Choice E, staying on bed rest for 48 to 72 hours postprocedure, is unnecessary and could lead to complications such as blood clots.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is using core measures to reduce healthdisparities. Which group should the nurse focus on to cause themost improvement in core measures?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Poor people. Focusing on poor people is likely to cause the most improvement in core measures because individuals living in poverty often face multiple barriers to accessing healthcare and have higher rates of chronic conditions. By targeting this group, the nurse can address social determinants of health, improve healthcare access, and address disparities in healthcare outcomes. Other choices (A, C, D) are not as impactful as poverty is a significant factor influencing health disparities.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is caring for a 39-year-old woman with a family history of breast cancer. She requested a breast tumor marking test and the results have come back positive. As a result, the patient is requesting a bilateral mastectomy. This surgery is an example of what type of oncologic surgery?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Prophylactic surgery. Prophylactic surgery involves removing tissue at risk of developing cancer to prevent the occurrence of cancer. In this case, the patient has a family history of breast cancer and has tested positive for a breast tumor marker, indicating a high risk of developing breast cancer. By opting for a bilateral mastectomy, the patient is proactively removing breast tissue to reduce her risk of developing breast cancer. Salvage surgery (A) is performed to remove cancer that has recurred after initial treatment. Palliative surgery (B) aims to alleviate symptoms and improve quality of life but is not curative. Reconstructive surgery (D) is performed to restore the appearance and function of a body part after cancer treatment but is not the primary purpose in this scenario.