ATI RN
Nursing Process NCLEX Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse is updating the care plan of a client whose condition has improved. What is the most appropriate step to take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because when a client's condition improves, resolved nursing diagnoses should be removed from the care plan to reflect the current status accurately. This ensures the care plan remains relevant and effective. Continuing with the existing plan (choice B) may lead to unnecessary interventions. Focusing only on unresolved issues (choice C) overlooks the importance of updating the care plan comprehensively. Delegating the task to another nurse or staff member (choice D) is not appropriate as the nurse updating the care plan should have a thorough understanding of the client's progress and needs.
Question 2 of 9
A patient is admitted to a medical unit with a diagnosis of heart failure. The patient reports that she has had increasing fatigue during the past 2 weeks. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this fatigue?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased cardiac output. Fatigue in heart failure is primarily due to decreased cardiac output, leading to reduced oxygen and nutrient delivery to tissues, causing fatigue. Dyspnea (A) is shortness of breath, not fatigue. Dry cough (C) is more associated with conditions like pulmonary issues, not fatigue. Orthopnea (D) is difficulty breathing while lying down, not specifically related to fatigue. Hence, decreased cardiac output is the most likely cause of fatigue in this patient.
Question 3 of 9
A very popular means of early detection of breast cancer is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Breast self-examination. This is because regular breast self-examination allows individuals to become familiar with their own breast tissue and identify any changes or abnormalities early on. X-ray (choice A) and surgical (choice C) are not typically used as early detection methods for breast cancer. Choice B is also incorrect because while mammograms (X-rays) are an important screening tool, self-examination should not be replaced by it, as it is a proactive way for individuals to take charge of their own health.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following assessment findings would suggest to the home health nurse that the patient is developing congestive heart failure?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Orthopnea is a classic symptom of congestive heart failure (CHF) due to fluid accumulation in the lungs when lying flat. Step 2: This symptom occurs because when lying down, the fluid redistributes, making it harder to breathe. Step 3: Fever (choice B) is not typically associated with CHF unless there is an underlying infection. Step 4: Weight loss (choice C) is more indicative of conditions like cancer or malnutrition, not CHF. Step 5: Calf pain (choice D) is more commonly associated with deep vein thrombosis, not CHF. Summary: Orthopnea is the best assessment finding indicating CHF, while the other choices are more likely related to different health conditions.
Question 5 of 9
The nursing staff has a team conference on AIDS and discusses the routes of transmission of the human immunodeficiency virus (HSV). The discussion reveals that an individual has no risk of exposure to HIV when that individual;
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why answer A is correct: 1. Having intercourse with just the spouse means a monogamous relationship with a trusted partner, minimizing risk of exposure to HIV. 2. It eliminates the risk of contracting HIV from multiple sexual partners. 3. This choice adheres to safer sex practices by reducing the chances of exposure to HIV. 4. This choice also promotes trust and communication within the relationship, further reducing the risk of HIV transmission. Summary: - Choice A is correct as it promotes monogamy and reduces the risk of exposure to HIV. - Choices B, C, and D do not guarantee zero risk of HIV transmission as blood donations, HIV antibodies, and condom use can still pose risks if not used or implemented correctly.
Question 6 of 9
For a client with sickle cell anemia, how does the nurse assess for jaundice?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because jaundice is a common manifestation of sickle cell anemia due to the breakdown of red blood cells. The nurse should inspect the skin and sclera for the characteristic yellow discoloration indicating jaundice. This assessment is specific to identifying jaundice, which is directly related to the disease process. Choice A is incorrect as it relates to assessing neurological function, not jaundice. Choice B is incorrect as joint swelling is not a typical sign of jaundice in sickle cell anemia. Choice D is incorrect as a urine specimen is not used to assess jaundice; skin and sclera inspection are more appropriate.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is updating the care plan of a client whose condition has improved. What is the most appropriate step to take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because when a client's condition improves, resolved nursing diagnoses should be removed from the care plan to reflect the current status accurately. This ensures the care plan remains relevant and effective. Continuing with the existing plan (choice B) may lead to unnecessary interventions. Focusing only on unresolved issues (choice C) overlooks the importance of updating the care plan comprehensively. Delegating the task to another nurse or staff member (choice D) is not appropriate as the nurse updating the care plan should have a thorough understanding of the client's progress and needs.
Question 8 of 9
A patient was recently diagnosed with pneumonia. The nurse and the patient have established a goal that the patient will not experience shortness of breath with activity in 3 days with an expected outcome of having no secretions present in the lungs in 48 hours. Which evaluative measure will the nurse use to demonstrate progress toward this goal?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct evaluative measure is D: Lungs clear to auscultation following use of inhaler. This choice aligns with the expected outcome of having no secretions present in the lungs in 48 hours. By using an inhaler to clear the lungs, the nurse can assess if the expected outcome is being met. This measure directly evaluates the presence of secretions in the lungs, in line with the established goal. Incorrect Choices: A: No sputum or cough present in 4 days - This measure does not align with the expected outcome of having no secretions present in the lungs in 48 hours. B: Congestion throughout all lung fields in 2 days - This indicates a worsening condition and does not demonstrate progress towards the goal. C: Shallow, fast respirations 30 breaths per minute in 1 day - This measure is unrelated to the presence of secretions in the lungs and the goal of avoiding shortness of breath with activity.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the ff. is a symptom that the nurse would expect to find during assessment of a patient experiencing acute angle-closure glaucoma?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Halos around lights. This symptom is specific to acute angle-closure glaucoma due to increased intraocular pressure causing corneal edema. Halos around lights are caused by light diffraction through edematous cornea. Flashing lights and lens opacity are not typically associated with acute angle-closure glaucoma. Flashing lights may be seen in retinal detachment, while lens opacity is more commonly seen in cataracts.