ATI RN
foundation of nursing questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse is teaching about the energy needed at rest to maintain life-sustaining activities for a specific period of time. What is the nurse discussing?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Basal metabolic rate (BMR). BMR refers to the minimum amount of energy required to maintain basic physiological functions at rest. It accounts for about 60-75% of total energy expenditure. It is essential for sustaining life-sustaining activities such as breathing, circulating blood, and maintaining body temperature. Incorrect Choices: A: Resting energy expenditure (REE) is the total amount of energy expended by the body while at rest, including BMR and additional energy for daily activities. C: Nutrient density refers to the amount of nutrients per calorie in a food item, not the energy needed at rest. D: Nutrients are essential substances in food required for growth, maintenance, and repair, but they do not specifically refer to the energy needed at rest.
Question 2 of 9
The patient with cardiovascular disease is receiving dietary instructions from the nurse. Which information from the patient indicates teaching is successful?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B - Eat fish at least 5 times per week. Rationale: 1. Fish is rich in omega-3 fatty acids, which are beneficial for heart health. 2. Eating fish frequently can help reduce the risk of cardiovascular diseases. 3. Consuming fish aligns with dietary recommendations for cardiovascular health. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Maintaining carbohydrate intake is important, but it may not specifically indicate success in cardiovascular disease management. C: Limiting trans fats is crucial, but it alone may not indicate overall success in dietary management for cardiovascular disease. D: Avoiding high-fiber foods is not recommended, as fiber is beneficial for heart health and overall well-being.
Question 3 of 9
A 32-year-old primigravida is admitted with a diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy. Nursing care is N R I G B.C M U S N T O based on which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because hemorrhage is the primary concern in ectopic pregnancy due to the risk of rupture and severe bleeding. Immediate intervention is crucial to prevent life-threatening complications. Choice B is incorrect as future fertility may be affected but is not the immediate concern. Choice C is incorrect as bed rest and analgesics are not effective treatments for ectopic pregnancy. Choice D is incorrect as a D&C is not performed in ectopic pregnancy; surgical intervention is required to remove the ectopic pregnancy.
Question 4 of 9
A patient with a hip fracture is having difficulty defecating into a bedpan while lying in bed. Which action by the nurse will assist the patient in having a successful bowel movement?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale: Option D is correct because raising the head of the bed promotes a more natural position for defecation, allowing gravity to assist. This position helps align the rectum and anal canal, making it easier for the patient to have a bowel movement. Administering laxatives (Option C) may help, but adjusting the bed position is a non-invasive and more immediate intervention. Withholding pain medication (Option B) could lead to unnecessary discomfort for the patient. Administering a barium enema (Option A) is not indicated for addressing difficulty with defecation.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse wants to reduce data entry errors onthe computer system. Which action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because charting on the computer immediately after care is provided reduces the chances of forgetting important details and ensures accuracy. It also allows for real-time documentation, improving patient care. Choice A is incorrect as using the same password all the time poses a security risk. Choice B is incorrect as sharing passwords compromises confidentiality. Choice C is incorrect as printing out and reviewing notes at home does not address data entry errors on the computer system.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse on the medicalsurgical unit is reviewing discharge instructions with a patient who has a history of glaucoma. The nurse should anticipate the use of what medications?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cholinergics. Glaucoma is a condition characterized by increased intraocular pressure due to impaired drainage of aqueous humor. Cholinergics help to constrict the pupil and improve the outflow of aqueous humor, thus reducing intraocular pressure. This medication class is commonly used to manage glaucoma. A: Potassium-sparing diuretics are not typically used in the treatment of glaucoma. They are mainly used to manage conditions like hypertension and heart failure. C: Antibiotics are not indicated for the routine management of glaucoma. They are used to treat infections. D: Loop diuretics are not commonly used in the treatment of glaucoma. They are primarily used to manage conditions like edema and hypertension.
Question 7 of 9
The nurses plan of care for a patient with stage 3 HIV addresses the diagnosis of Risk for Impaired Skin Integrity Related to Candidiasis. What nursing intervention best addresses this risk?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Providing thorough oral care before and after meals. This addresses the risk for impaired skin integrity related to Candidiasis in patients with stage 3 HIV by preventing oral Candidiasis, a common fungal infection. Poor oral hygiene can lead to Candidiasis, which can spread to the skin. Thorough oral care reduces the risk of oral Candidiasis, thereby preventing skin integrity issues. Administering prophylactic antibiotics (B) is not indicated for preventing Candidiasis. Promoting nutrition and fluid intake (C) is important for overall health but does not directly address the risk of impaired skin integrity. Applying skin emollients (D) may help with skin dryness but does not directly address the underlying cause of Candidiasis.
Question 8 of 9
When reviewing the electronic health record of a female patient, the nurse reads that the patient has a history of adenomyosis. The nurse should be aware that this patient experiences symptoms resulting from what pathophysiologic process?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Invasion of the uterine wall by endometrial tissue. Adenomyosis is a condition where endometrial tissue grows into the muscular wall of the uterus, causing symptoms like heavy menstrual bleeding and severe cramping. This process results in inflammation, thickening of the uterine wall, and can lead to enlargement of the uterus. Choice A: Loss of muscle tone in the vaginal wall is incorrect because adenomyosis does not involve the vaginal wall. Choice B: Excessive synthesis and release of unopposed estrogen is incorrect because although estrogen can contribute to the growth of endometrial tissue, it is not the primary pathophysiologic process in adenomyosis. Choice D: Proliferation of tumors in the uterine wall is incorrect because adenomyosis does not involve the growth of tumors, but rather the infiltration of endometrial tissue into the uterine muscle.
Question 9 of 9
Several residents of a long-term care facility have developed signs and symptoms of viral conjunctivitis. What is the most appropriate action of the nurse who oversees care in the facility?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Isolate affected residents from residents who have not developed conjunctivitis. This is the most appropriate action to prevent the spread of viral conjunctivitis in a long-term care facility. By isolating affected residents, the nurse can minimize the risk of transmission to other residents. Choice A is incorrect because prophylactic antibiotics are not effective against viral conjunctivitis. Choice B is also incorrect as normal saline does not treat viral conjunctivitis but may provide comfort. Choice C is unnecessary as viral conjunctivitis is typically diagnosed clinically and does not require culture testing.