ATI RN
foundations of nursing test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse is teaching a patient about the urinarysystem. In which order will the nurse present the structures, following the flow of urine?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct order is B: Kidney, ureters, bladder, urethra. 1. Kidneys filter blood and produce urine. 2. Ureters transport urine from kidneys to bladder. 3. Bladder stores urine until expelled. 4. Urethra carries urine from bladder out of the body. Other choices are incorrect because they do not follow the anatomical flow of urine through the urinary system.
Question 2 of 9
A patient who has AIDS has been admitted for the treatment of Kaposis sarcoma. What nursing diagnosis should the nurse associate with this complication of AIDS?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B) Impaired Skin Integrity Related to Kaposis Sarcoma. Kaposis sarcoma can cause skin lesions that may lead to impaired skin integrity due to tissue breakdown. The nurse should prioritize interventions to prevent infection and promote wound healing. Choice A is incorrect because Disuse Syndrome is not directly related to Kaposis Sarcoma. Choice C, Diarrhea, is not a common complication of Kaposis Sarcoma. Choice D, Impaired Swallowing, is not typically associated with Kaposis Sarcoma.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient with a continenturinary reservoir. Which action will the nurse take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Teach the patient how to self-cath the pouch. In a continent urinary reservoir, patients need to catheterize the pouch several times a day. This is essential for emptying the urine from the pouch as the ileocecal valve creates a one-way valve. Teaching the patient how to self-catheterize ensures proper and timely drainage, preventing complications like urinary retention. Self-catheterization also empowers the patient to take an active role in managing their continence. Summary of other choices: B: Kegel exercises are ineffective for a patient with a continent urinary reservoir as they do not address the need for catheterization. C: Changing the collection pouch is not the primary action needed for a continent urinary reservoir. Catheterization is essential for drainage. D: The Valsalva technique is not appropriate for voiding in a continent urinary reservoir. Catheterization is the recommended method for emptying the pouch.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is reviewing results from a urine specimen.What will the nurse expect to see in a patient with a urinary tract infection?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bacteria. In a patient with a urinary tract infection (UTI), bacteria are typically present in the urine due to the infection of the urinary system. Bacteria may be detected through urine culture or microscopic examination. A: Casts are not typically associated with UTIs but can indicate kidney disease. B: Protein in the urine can indicate kidney damage or other issues, not specific to UTIs. C: Crystals in the urine can be normal or indicate specific conditions, but they are not specific to UTIs. In summary, the presence of bacteria in the urine is a key indicator of a UTI, while the other choices are more indicative of different conditions or factors.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse obtained a telephone order from a primarycare provider for a patient in pain. Which chart entry should the nurse document?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it includes all necessary components for a complete and accurate chart entry. The nurse documents the date and time of the order, the medication prescribed (Morphine, 2 mg, IV every 4 hours), the indication for use (incisional pain), the intended recipient (Dr. Day), the nurse's name (J. Winds), and confirmation of the read-back procedure. This entry ensures clarity, accountability, and proper communication among healthcare team members. Choice A is incorrect because it misses the recipient of the order (Dr. Day) and only includes the nurse's name in the read-back. Choice B is incorrect because it lacks the recipient of the order and the confirmation of the read-back procedure with the primary care provider. Choice D is incorrect because it does not specify the primary care provider who gave the order and misses the read-back confirmation with the provider.
Question 6 of 9
An oncology patient has begun to experience skin reactions to radiation therapy, prompting the nurse to make the diagnosis Impaired Skin Integrity: erythematous reaction to radiation therapy. What intervention best addresses this nursing diagnosis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Correct Answer: D - Avoid rubbing or scratching the affected area Rationale: 1. Rubbing or scratching can further damage the already compromised skin integrity. 2. By avoiding rubbing or scratching, the patient reduces the risk of infection and delayed healing. 3. This intervention promotes skin healing and prevents worsening of the condition. Summary: A: Applying ice pack or heating pad may provide temporary relief but does not address the root cause of impaired skin integrity. B: Avoiding skin contact with water is not necessary and may not directly improve skin integrity. C: Phototherapy is not indicated for erythematous reactions to radiation therapy and may not address the issue.
Question 7 of 9
A patient with mastoiditis is admitted to the post-surgical unit after undergoing a radical mastoidectomy. The nurse should identify what priority of postoperative care?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assessing for mouth droop and decreased lateral eye gaze. After a radical mastoidectomy, the nurse should prioritize assessing for signs of facial nerve damage, such as mouth droop and decreased lateral eye gaze, which can indicate injury to the facial nerve during surgery. This is crucial as immediate intervention may be needed to prevent long-term complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect: B: Assessing for increased middle ear pressure and perforated ear drum is not the priority postoperative care for a radical mastoidectomy patient. C: Assessing for gradual onset of conductive hearing loss and nystagmus is not the priority as these are not immediate concerns postoperatively. D: Assessing for scar tissue and cerumen obstructing the auditory canal is not the priority as these are not immediate postoperative complications that require urgent attention.
Question 8 of 9
To decrease glandular cellular activity and prostate size, an 83-year-old patient has been prescribed finasteride (Proscar). When performing patient education with this patient, the nurse should be sure to tell the patient what?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Finasteride is a medication that works by decreasing glandular cellular activity and reducing prostate size. Step 2: Dietary supplements can interact with finasteride, potentially affecting its effectiveness or causing adverse effects. Step 3: Reporting the planned use of dietary supplements to the physician ensures proper monitoring and adjustment of the treatment plan. Step 4: This communication promotes patient safety and optimal therapeutic outcomes. Therefore, choice A is correct as it emphasizes the importance of informing the physician about dietary supplement use to ensure the efficacy and safety of finasteride. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the mechanism of action or specific considerations of finasteride therapy.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse in an extended care facility is planning the daily activities of a patient with postpolio syndrome. The nurse recognizes the patient will best benefit from physical therapy when it is scheduled at what time?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: In the morning. This is because scheduling physical therapy in the morning allows the patient to benefit from increased energy levels and improved muscle strength and function after a night of rest. Morning sessions can also help set a positive tone for the rest of the day. Choice A: Immediately after meals can lead to discomfort and potential complications like indigestion or reflux. Choice C: Before bedtime may be too late in the day when fatigue levels are higher and may disrupt sleep patterns. Choice D: In the early evening may be less effective as fatigue accumulates throughout the day, and the patient may not have the same level of energy and focus as in the morning.