A nurse is teaching a patient about managing hypertension. Which of the following statements made by the patient would indicate the need for further education?

Questions 84

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

jarvis health assessment test bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

A nurse is teaching a patient about managing hypertension. Which of the following statements made by the patient would indicate the need for further education?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step 1: Patient stating they can stop taking medication once BP is normal shows misunderstanding of hypertension as a chronic condition. Step 2: Hypertension requires long-term management even if BP is controlled temporarily. Step 3: Stopping medication abruptly can lead to BP spikes and complications. Step 4: Other choices (A, C, D) demonstrate good understanding and proactive approach to managing hypertension. Summary: Choice B is incorrect as it suggests discontinuation of medication, posing a risk to the patient's health. Choices A, C, and D show positive behaviors towards hypertension management.

Question 2 of 9

Teaching a client with gonorrhea about reinfection prevention is an example of:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: secondary prevention. Teaching a client with gonorrhea about reinfection prevention falls under secondary prevention, which aims to detect and treat a disease early to prevent complications and further transmission. This intervention occurs after the client has already been diagnosed with gonorrhea, focusing on preventing reinfection and spreading the infection to others. A: Primary prevention focuses on preventing the disease from occurring in the first place, such as promoting safe sex practices to prevent gonorrhea infection. C: Tertiary prevention involves managing and preventing complications of a disease that has already occurred, which is not the case with teaching about reinfection prevention. D: Primary health care prevention is a broad term that encompasses various aspects of healthcare delivery, but it does not specifically address the prevention of reinfection in a client with gonorrhea.

Question 3 of 9

A nurse is preparing to assess a hospitalized patient who is experiencing significant shortness of breath. How should the nurse proceed with the assessment?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because it focuses on prioritizing the assessment by first addressing the immediate problem of shortness of breath. By examining only the body areas related to the current issue, the nurse can quickly gather essential information to manage the patient's respiratory distress effectively. Once the critical issue is stabilized, a complete assessment can be conducted to identify any underlying problems or potential complications. This approach ensures that the nurse addresses the most urgent needs first before proceeding to a comprehensive assessment. Choice B is incorrect because it suggests only examining body areas directly related to the hospitalization problem, which may overlook other critical issues contributing to the shortness of breath. Choice C is incorrect as shortness of breath is not a normal finding and should not be dismissed without further evaluation. Choice D is incorrect as examining the entire body without focusing on the immediate issue may delay appropriate interventions for the patient's respiratory distress.

Question 4 of 9

Which nursing diagnosis applies to a client stating they feel incomplete due to infertility?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Body Image Disturbance. Infertility can impact one's perception of self and body image, leading to feelings of incompleteness. This nursing diagnosis addresses the emotional distress related to altered self-perception. A: Risk for Self Harm is not directly related to the client's statement about feeling incomplete due to infertility. C: Ineffective Role Performance doesn't specifically address the client's feelings of incompleteness related to infertility. D: Powerlessness may not fully capture the client's emotional struggle with their body image and feelings of incompleteness due to infertility.

Question 5 of 9

Which lab values indicate a decreased risk of cardiovascular disease?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. High HDL cholesterol is considered beneficial as it helps remove LDL cholesterol from arteries, reducing the risk of plaque buildup. 2. Low HDL cholesterol is associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular disease. 3. Low total cholesterol may not necessarily indicate a decreased risk, as it could be due to low levels of protective HDL cholesterol. 4. Low triglycerides, while generally considered good, do not directly indicate a decreased risk of cardiovascular disease like high HDL cholesterol does. In summary, high HDL cholesterol is the correct answer as it plays a crucial role in reducing the risk of cardiovascular disease by removing LDL cholesterol, whereas the other choices do not offer the same protective benefits.

Question 6 of 9

What is assessed during a functional health assessment?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a functional health assessment evaluates various health patterns such as roles, relationships, coping mechanisms, stress tolerance, and lifestyle choices, providing a holistic view of the individual's well-being. Vital signs and circulation (A) are typically included in a physical assessment, not a functional health assessment. Assessing specific organ abnormalities (C) would be part of a focused physical examination or diagnostic testing. Acute symptoms (D) are important to address but do not encompass the comprehensive evaluation of health patterns that a functional health assessment covers.

Question 7 of 9

When percussing over the ribs of a patient, the nurse notes a dull sounThe nurse would:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because the dull sound over the ribs is a normal finding due to the presence of underlying solid structures such as the liver or spleen. Repositioning the hands or using more force is unnecessary as it won't change the nature of the sound. Referring the patient for additional investigation (choice D) is not warranted as this finding is commonly expected during percussion over the ribs.

Question 8 of 9

A nurse is caring for a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD). The nurse should monitor for which of the following signs of complications?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correct answer: A - Hyperkalemia Rationale: 1. In CKD, impaired kidney function leads to decreased potassium excretion, causing hyperkalemia. 2. Hyperkalemia can result in life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. 3. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial in CKD management. Summary: B: Hypoglycemia - Not typically associated with CKD, more common in diabetes. C: Hyperglycemia - Common in diabetes, but not a typical complication of CKD. D: Hypercalcemia - Uncommon in CKD, more often seen in hyperparathyroidism.

Question 9 of 9

What is an appropriate response by the nurse to a Native-American woman requesting a medicine woman's presence during fetal heart monitoring?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because it demonstrates cultural competence and respect for the patient's beliefs. It shows willingness to accommodate the patient's request, promoting trust and effective communication. Choice B is incorrect as it dismisses the patient's request and may lead to distrust. Choice C is incorrect as it disregards the patient's cultural beliefs and can be perceived as insensitive. Choice D is incorrect as it invalidates the patient's beliefs and can hinder the therapeutic relationship. Ultimately, choice A is the most appropriate response to promote patient-centered care and build a trusting relationship with the patient.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days