A nurse is teaching a client in the doctor's office about genital warts. Which of the following is the best discharge instruction to give to a client with genital warts?

Questions 59

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Human Reproductive System Questions

Question 1 of 5

A nurse is teaching a client in the doctor's office about genital warts. Which of the following is the best discharge instruction to give to a client with genital warts?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A) Advise all sexual contacts to be examined and treated. This option is the best discharge instruction for a client with genital warts because genital warts are highly contagious and caused by the Human Papillomavirus (HPV). By advising all sexual contacts to be examined and treated, the spread of the virus can be minimized, and further transmission can be prevented. Option B) Antiviral IV drugs are recommended to prevent viral shedding is incorrect because antiviral IV drugs are not typically used to treat genital warts. Topical treatments are usually preferred. Option C) Topical applications of the antiviral drugs are recommended for clinical benefits is partially correct as topical antiviral drugs can be used to treat genital warts; however, the key in managing genital warts is also addressing potential transmission by advising sexual contacts to seek treatment. Option D) Use of alcohol, peroxide, witch hazel, and warm air from a hair dryer are recommended to keep the lesions dry is incorrect as these methods are not effective treatments for genital warts and may even cause irritation or further complications. In an educational context, it is crucial to emphasize the importance of comprehensive management of genital warts, including both treating the individual with the condition and preventing its spread to others. Educating clients on the contagious nature of genital warts and the necessity of informing sexual partners for evaluation and treatment is essential in promoting holistic sexual health practices.

Question 2 of 5

You are administering vancomycin (Vancocin) 500 mg IV to a client with PID when you notice that the client's neck and face are becoming flushed. Which action should you take next?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B) Slow the rate of the medication infusion. When a client demonstrates signs of red man syndrome, which includes flushing of the neck and face, during vancomycin administration, it is indicative of a rapid infusion rate. Slowing down the infusion rate can help mitigate this adverse reaction. This is crucial for client comfort and safety. Option A) Discontinuing the vancomycin may be too drastic a step initially. It is important to first attempt to manage the symptoms by adjusting the infusion rate. Option C) Obtaining an order for an antihistamine is not the first-line intervention for red man syndrome due to vancomycin. Slowing the infusion rate is more specific and effective. Option D) Checking the client's temperature may provide additional information but does not address the immediate concern of the flushing reaction. From an educational perspective, understanding adverse drug reactions like red man syndrome is vital for healthcare professionals, especially when administering medications with known side effects. Prompt recognition and appropriate intervention can prevent escalation of symptoms and ensure client safety. It is crucial for healthcare providers to be well-versed in managing medication-related reactions to deliver safe and effective care.

Question 3 of 5

Women infected with human papilloma virus (HPV) are at risk for which of the following?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B) Cervical cancer. Women infected with human papillomavirus (HPV) are at increased risk for developing cervical cancer. HPV is a sexually transmitted infection that can lead to changes in the cells of the cervix, increasing the likelihood of developing cervical cancer over time. Option A) Uterine fibroids are non-cancerous growths in the uterus and are not directly linked to HPV infection. Option C) Ovarian cysts are fluid-filled sacs that can develop on the ovaries and are not typically associated with HPV. Option D) Hemorrhagic refers to bleeding, which is not a direct consequence of HPV infection. Educationally, it is crucial for students to understand the link between HPV and cervical cancer as part of their knowledge of the human reproductive system. This knowledge is vital for promoting awareness about the importance of HPV vaccination and regular cervical cancer screenings for early detection and prevention. Understanding this association can empower individuals to make informed decisions about their reproductive health and overall well-being.

Question 4 of 5

A client is undergoing sentinel lymph node mapping. A nurse explains that this new technique reduces the likelihood of which

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In the context of a client undergoing sentinel lymph node mapping, the nurse explains that this new technique reduces the likelihood of lymphedema, making option A the correct answer. Lymphedema is a condition characterized by swelling due to the accumulation of lymph fluid, commonly seen after lymph node removal surgeries. Option B, excessive scarring, is not directly related to lymph node mapping procedures but may occur due to surgical incisions. Option C, cellulitis, is a localized bacterial skin infection and is not specifically prevented by lymph node mapping. Educationally, it is crucial for healthcare professionals to understand the implications of different procedures on patient outcomes. By knowing that sentinel lymph node mapping can reduce the risk of lymphedema, nurses can better educate and support their clients through the treatment process. This knowledge empowers nurses to provide comprehensive care and address patient concerns effectively.

Question 5 of 5

A male client is having trouble with erections and comes to the clinic to be seen by the doctor. The doctor diagnoses the client with erectile dysfunction. The nurse provides education regarding the disorder and teaches the client that erectile dysfunction can be caused by which of the following?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Educational Rationale: The correct answer is C) Side effects of drug therapy. Erectile dysfunction (ED) can be caused by various factors, and one common cause is the side effects of certain medications. Many prescription drugs, such as antidepressants, antihypertensives, and some medications for prostate conditions, can impact sexual function and lead to ED. Option A) Obsessive compulsive disorder is incorrect because OCD is a mental health disorder characterized by intrusive thoughts and repetitive behaviors, not directly linked to ED. Option B) Complications of STIs are usually related to infections affecting the reproductive system but may not directly cause ED unless there are severe complications affecting blood flow or nerve function. Option D) Spinal stenosis is a condition where the spinal canal narrows and can lead to nerve compression, which typically does not directly cause ED unless it affects the nerves involved in the erectile response. Educational Context: Understanding the causes of erectile dysfunction is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and support to clients. Educating clients about potential causes, such as medication side effects, helps them make informed decisions about their health and treatment options. Nurses play a vital role in patient education, empowering individuals to manage their health effectively.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days

Similar Questions