A nurse is talking with the partner of a client who has dementia. The client's partner expresses frustration about finding time to manage household responsibilities while caring for their partner. The nurse should identify that the partner is experiencing which of the following types of role-performance stress?

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Question 1 of 9

A nurse is talking with the partner of a client who has dementia. The client's partner expresses frustration about finding time to manage household responsibilities while caring for their partner. The nurse should identify that the partner is experiencing which of the following types of role-performance stress?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Role conflict. Role conflict occurs when an individual experiences conflicting demands from different roles they hold, causing stress. In this scenario, the partner is struggling to balance the roles of caregiver and managing household responsibilities, leading to frustration. A: Role ambiguity refers to uncertainty or lack of clarity about one's responsibilities, which is not evident in the scenario. B: Role overload is when an individual has too many responsibilities to manage effectively, but in this case, the partner is specifically struggling with conflicting roles. D: Sick role is when an individual's illness affects their ability to fulfill their roles, which is not the primary issue in this scenario. In summary, the partner's frustration in balancing caregiving and household responsibilities indicates role conflict as the correct type of role-performance stress being experienced.

Question 2 of 9

When lifting a bedside cabinet to move it closer to a client, what action should the nurse take to prevent self-injury?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Keep the feet close together. This helps maintain a stable base of support, improving balance and reducing the risk of injury. The wider the base of support, the more stable the body is during lifting. Keeping the feet close together also helps distribute the weight evenly and allows for better control over the movement. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B: Using the back muscles for lifting can lead to strain and injury. It is important to use the legs and core muscles instead. C: Standing close to the cabinet when lifting may cause strain due to limited range of motion. It is better to maintain a comfortable distance. D: Bending at the waist increases the risk of back injury. Instead, it is recommended to bend at the knees and hips while keeping the back straight.

Question 3 of 9

How can a staff nurse recognize they are experiencing burnout? (EXCEPT)

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: A staff nurse experiencing burnout may isolate themselves, leading to less interaction with staff on other units. This can result in spending less time talking to staff on other units. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are common signs of burnout: staff questioning clinical judgment, increased sleep, and increased alcohol consumption.

Question 4 of 9

Most evaluations are based on absolute judgment. This is:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Internal standards. Rationale: 1. Internal standards refer to criteria set by an organization based on its own goals and values. 2. Absolute judgment means evaluations are made against these internal standards. 3. By using internal standards, evaluations are consistent and aligned with organizational objectives. 4. External sources (A) and manager's personal opinion (D) are subjective and may not reflect organizational goals. 5. Manager and staff's perceived notion (B) may vary and lack consistency, unlike internal standards. Summary: Internal standards provide a consistent and objective basis for evaluations, ensuring alignment with organizational goals. External sources, personal opinions, and perceived notions lack this consistency and alignment.

Question 5 of 9

Which nursing action can the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) working in the diabetic clinic?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, "Measure the ankle-brachial index." This task involves using a blood pressure cuff and Doppler ultrasound to assess blood flow in the lower extremities, which is within the scope of practice for UAPs. It is a non-invasive procedure that does not require specialized training. Choice B, "Check for changes in skin pigmentation," involves assessing for potential skin changes related to circulation issues, which requires more in-depth knowledge and interpretation than what UAPs are trained for. Choice C, "Assess for unilateral or bilateral foot drop," involves evaluating muscle strength and nerve function, which requires clinical judgment and knowledge beyond the scope of UAP practice. Choice D, "Ask the patient about symptoms of depression," involves assessing mental health and requires communication skills and training that UAPs do not typically have.

Question 6 of 9

During a physical assessment of adult clients, which of the following techniques should the nurse use?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step 1: Palpating the client's abdomen before auscultating bowel sounds is the correct technique during a physical assessment. This sequence is important because palpation can potentially disrupt bowel sounds, leading to inaccurate assessment results. Step 2: Palpation helps to identify any tenderness, masses, or abnormalities in the abdomen before proceeding to auscultate bowel sounds. This way, any abnormal findings during palpation can be correlated with bowel sound assessment. Step 3: By following this sequence, the nurse ensures a systematic and accurate assessment of the client's abdomen, which is crucial for detecting any gastrointestinal issues or abnormalities. In summary, option B is correct because it follows the appropriate sequence of assessment techniques, ensuring a thorough and accurate evaluation of the client's abdomen. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not pertain to the correct sequence or technique for assessing the abdomen during a physical assessment.

Question 7 of 9

Which of the following is a skill emotionally intelligent leaders must develop?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Emotionally intelligent leaders must develop the skill of encouraging constructive criticism because it fosters open communication, builds trust, and promotes growth and learning within the team. By actively seeking feedback and input from others, leaders show humility, empathy, and a willingness to improve. This skill also helps in creating a positive work environment where team members feel valued and supported. Choice B is incorrect because emotionally intelligent leaders understand the importance of collaboration and delegating tasks effectively rather than working solely on their own. Choice C is incorrect because minimizing one's own emotions hinders effective communication and empathy, which are crucial aspects of emotional intelligence. Choice D is incorrect because while encouraging others to work efficiently is important, it does not specifically address the need for constructive criticism in developing emotional intelligence.

Question 8 of 9

Attending a continuing education class on advanced technology in health care is interpreted as which of the following by the nurse manager?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Essential to nursing care. Attending a continuing education class on advanced technology in health care is essential for nurses to stay updated with the latest advancements, improve patient care, and enhance their clinical skills. It helps nurses deliver high-quality care, adapt to changes in healthcare practices, and improve patient outcomes. The other choices are incorrect because continuing education benefits all healthcare professionals, not just nurse managers. It is not unimportant or a waste of time, as it directly impacts the quality of nursing care provided.

Question 9 of 9

The nurse is taking a health history from a 29-year-old pregnant patient at the first prenatal visit. The patient reports no personal history of diabetes but has a parent who is diabetic. Which action will the nurse plan to take first?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Schedule the patient for a fasting blood glucose level. At the first prenatal visit, it is important to assess the patient's risk factors for developing gestational diabetes, especially with a family history of diabetes. A fasting blood glucose level will provide an initial screening to determine if the patient is at risk for gestational diabetes. This test is non-invasive, cost-effective, and provides valuable information early in the pregnancy. Teaching about administering regular insulin (A) is premature without confirming a diagnosis. An oral glucose tolerance test at the twenty-fourth week (C) is typically done later in pregnancy to diagnose gestational diabetes. Providing teaching about fetal problems with gestational diabetes (D) is important but should come after confirming the diagnosis.

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