A nurse is talking with the partner of a client who has dementia. The client's partner expresses frustration about finding time to manage household responsibilities while caring for their partner. The nurse should identify that the partner is experiencing which of the following types of role-performance stress?

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Question 1 of 9

A nurse is talking with the partner of a client who has dementia. The client's partner expresses frustration about finding time to manage household responsibilities while caring for their partner. The nurse should identify that the partner is experiencing which of the following types of role-performance stress?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Role conflict. Role conflict occurs when an individual experiences conflicting demands from different roles they hold, causing stress. In this scenario, the partner is struggling to balance the roles of caregiver and managing household responsibilities, leading to frustration. A: Role ambiguity refers to uncertainty or lack of clarity about one's responsibilities, which is not evident in the scenario. B: Role overload is when an individual has too many responsibilities to manage effectively, but in this case, the partner is specifically struggling with conflicting roles. D: Sick role is when an individual's illness affects their ability to fulfill their roles, which is not the primary issue in this scenario. In summary, the partner's frustration in balancing caregiving and household responsibilities indicates role conflict as the correct type of role-performance stress being experienced.

Question 2 of 9

Attending a continuing education class on advanced technology in health care is interpreted as which of the following by the nurse manager?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Essential to nursing care. Attending a continuing education class on advanced technology in health care is essential for nurses to stay updated with the latest advancements, improve patient care, and enhance their clinical skills. It helps nurses deliver high-quality care, adapt to changes in healthcare practices, and improve patient outcomes. The other choices are incorrect because continuing education benefits all healthcare professionals, not just nurse managers. It is not unimportant or a waste of time, as it directly impacts the quality of nursing care provided.

Question 3 of 9

The staff nurse is caring for the client with total accountability and is in continual communication with the client, the family, the physicians, and other members of the health care team. This type of nursing delivery system is known as:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Total patient care. This system involves the nurse having full accountability for the client's care and maintaining constant communication with all involved parties. This ensures comprehensive and individualized care. Choice B, qualified nurse case managers, typically focus on care coordination rather than direct client care. Choice C, established critical pathways, refers to standardized care plans, not individualized care. Choice D, quality management system, involves monitoring and improving care quality, not the direct provision of care.

Question 4 of 9

A nurse manager is considering the variances of the budget. Fewer monies were spent than expected. What type of variance is this?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Favorable variance. This is because spending less money than expected is positive for the budget, indicating efficiency. A favorable variance means actual costs are lower than budgeted, leading to cost savings. In contrast, an unfavorable variance (option A) would occur if more money was spent than anticipated, indicating overspending. Choices C and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the concept of budget variances and are not commonly used terms in budgeting analysis.

Question 5 of 9

What is the primary goal of discharge planning?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The primary goal of discharge planning is to ensure continuity of care. This involves coordinating the transition of care from the hospital to the next level of care to prevent gaps in treatment and promote a smooth recovery process. Option A focuses solely on readmission rates, which is not the sole purpose of discharge planning. Option B is a broad goal that is encompassed within ensuring continuity of care. Option D, while important, is just one aspect of the overall goal of ensuring continuity of care. Thus, option C is the correct answer as it encompasses all aspects of discharge planning.

Question 6 of 9

A 26-year-old female with type 1 diabetes develops a sore throat and runny nose after caring for her sick toddler. The patient calls the clinic for advice about her symptoms and a blood glucose level of 210 mg/dL despite taking her usual glargine (Lantus) and lispro (Humalog) insulin. The nurse advises the patient to

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: monitor blood glucose every 4 hours and notify the clinic if it continues to rise. In this scenario, the patient is experiencing an illness (sore throat and runny nose) which can lead to elevated blood glucose levels due to increased stress hormones. It is essential to closely monitor blood glucose levels to prevent hyperglycemia-related complications. The nurse's advice aligns with the goal of closely monitoring the patient's condition and seeking medical attention if blood glucose levels continue to rise. Choice A is incorrect because using only lispro insulin may not be sufficient to manage the elevated blood glucose levels caused by illness. Choice B is incorrect as limiting calorie intake may not be the appropriate action to take in this situation. Choice D is incorrect because decreasing carbohydrate intake based on glycosylated hemoglobin levels is not an immediate solution to address the current elevated blood glucose levels due to illness.

Question 7 of 9

Most evaluations are based on absolute judgment. This is:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Internal standards. Rationale: 1. Internal standards refer to criteria set by an organization based on its own goals and values. 2. Absolute judgment means evaluations are made against these internal standards. 3. By using internal standards, evaluations are consistent and aligned with organizational objectives. 4. External sources (A) and manager's personal opinion (D) are subjective and may not reflect organizational goals. 5. Manager and staff's perceived notion (B) may vary and lack consistency, unlike internal standards. Summary: Internal standards provide a consistent and objective basis for evaluations, ensuring alignment with organizational goals. External sources, personal opinions, and perceived notions lack this consistency and alignment.

Question 8 of 9

Which nursing action can the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) working in the diabetic clinic?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, "Measure the ankle-brachial index." This task involves using a blood pressure cuff and Doppler ultrasound to assess blood flow in the lower extremities, which is within the scope of practice for UAPs. It is a non-invasive procedure that does not require specialized training. Choice B, "Check for changes in skin pigmentation," involves assessing for potential skin changes related to circulation issues, which requires more in-depth knowledge and interpretation than what UAPs are trained for. Choice C, "Assess for unilateral or bilateral foot drop," involves evaluating muscle strength and nerve function, which requires clinical judgment and knowledge beyond the scope of UAP practice. Choice D, "Ask the patient about symptoms of depression," involves assessing mental health and requires communication skills and training that UAPs do not typically have.

Question 9 of 9

When lifting a bedside cabinet to move it closer to a client, what action should the nurse take to prevent self-injury?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Keep the feet close together. This helps maintain a stable base of support, improving balance and reducing the risk of injury. The wider the base of support, the more stable the body is during lifting. Keeping the feet close together also helps distribute the weight evenly and allows for better control over the movement. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B: Using the back muscles for lifting can lead to strain and injury. It is important to use the legs and core muscles instead. C: Standing close to the cabinet when lifting may cause strain due to limited range of motion. It is better to maintain a comfortable distance. D: Bending at the waist increases the risk of back injury. Instead, it is recommended to bend at the knees and hips while keeping the back straight.

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