ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a history of angina and is scheduled for surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. An INR of 2.0 is within the therapeutic range for clients receiving warfarin. It is crucial to report this finding to the provider before surgery to ensure appropriate management and potential adjustments to prevent excessive bleeding risks. Choices A, B, and C are within normal limits and do not directly impact the client's surgery preparation or risk for bleeding, so they do not require immediate reporting.
Question 2 of 9
What is the first intervention for a patient experiencing anaphylactic shock?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer epinephrine as the first intervention for a patient experiencing anaphylactic shock. Epinephrine is crucial in reversing the allergic reaction and restoring cardiovascular stability. Corticosteroids (Choice B) are not the first-line treatment for anaphylactic shock but may be used as an adjunct therapy. Antihistamines (Choice C) can help relieve itching and hives but are not as effective as epinephrine in treating the systemic effects of anaphylaxis. Oxygen (Choice D) may be necessary to support breathing in severe cases of anaphylaxis, but administering epinephrine takes precedence in the management of anaphylactic shock.
Question 3 of 9
How should signs of infection in a post-surgical patient be assessed?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Assessing the surgical site is crucial in identifying early signs of infection post-surgery. Changes such as redness, swelling, warmth, or drainage may indicate an infection developing. While monitoring vital signs and fever are important in infection assessment, they are general indicators and may not show localized signs at the surgical site. Checking for abnormal breath sounds is more relevant when assessing respiratory issues rather than infection at the surgical site.
Question 4 of 9
What should the healthcare provider monitor for a patient receiving furosemide?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor potassium levels when a patient is receiving furosemide because furosemide can cause potassium depletion. It is essential to monitor potassium levels to prevent complications such as hypokalemia. While monitoring urine output is important in assessing kidney function, and monitoring blood pressure and serum creatinine are relevant in certain situations, the priority when administering furosemide is to monitor potassium levels due to the medication's potential to deplete potassium.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is postoperative following a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The adhesive bandage should be removed 3 days after a laparoscopic cholecystectomy to allow the incision to heal properly. Choice A is incorrect as the client should start with a clear liquid diet and advance to a regular diet as tolerated. Choice C is incorrect because the client should gradually increase activity levels as tolerated. Choice D is incorrect as the client should avoid tub baths and opt for showers to prevent infection and promote healing.
Question 6 of 9
When providing teaching for a child prescribed ferrous sulfate, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Take with a glass of orange juice.' Ferrous sulfate is best absorbed with vitamin C, making orange juice the preferred choice. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because taking ferrous sulfate with meals, at bedtime, or with milk can reduce its absorption due to interactions with food components like calcium, inhibiting the iron absorption process.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Lorazepam is the correct choice for managing acute alcohol withdrawal symptoms due to its effectiveness in controlling agitation and tremors associated with this condition. Atenolol (Choice B) is a beta-blocker mainly used for hypertension and angina, not for alcohol withdrawal symptoms. Naltrexone (Choice C) is used for alcohol dependence treatment by reducing cravings and the rewarding effects of alcohol, but it is not typically used in acute withdrawal situations. Methadone (Choice D) is an opioid agonist mainly used for opioid detoxification and maintenance therapy, not for alcohol withdrawal.
Question 8 of 9
A client has deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for a nurse caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is to apply warm compresses to the affected extremity. Warm compresses help reduce swelling and pain in clients with DVT. Administering thrombolytics (Choice A) is not typically done without specific orders due to the risk of bleeding. Massaging the affected extremity (Choice B) can dislodge blood clots and lead to complications. Placing the client in a supine position with the legs elevated (Choice D) may increase the risk of clot dislodgment.
Question 9 of 9
What is the primary purpose of administering insulin to a patient with diabetes?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Regulate blood glucose levels.' Administering insulin to a patient with diabetes helps regulate blood glucose levels by facilitating the uptake of glucose into cells, thereby lowering high blood sugar levels. This process aims to prevent hyperglycemia and its associated complications. Choice B, 'Increase metabolism,' is incorrect as the primary role of insulin is not to increase metabolism directly. Choice C, 'Prevent complications,' is partially correct as regulating blood glucose through insulin administration does help prevent complications associated with uncontrolled diabetes, but it is not the primary purpose. Choice D, 'Promote insulin sensitivity,' is incorrect as insulin itself is administered to compensate for the lack of endogenous insulin in diabetic patients, rather than to promote sensitivity to it.