ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023 Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has angina. Which of the following findings in the client's medical history should the nurse identify as a risk factor for angina?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperlipidemia. Hyperlipidemia, which is an elevated level of lipids (fats) in the blood, is a well-established risk factor for angina. High levels of lipids can lead to atherosclerosis, a condition where fatty deposits build up in the arteries, reducing blood flow to the heart muscle and increasing the risk of angina. Choice B, COPD (Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease), is not directly linked to an increased risk of angina. COPD primarily affects the lungs and is not a known risk factor for angina. Choice C, Seizure disorder, and Choice D, Hyponatremia (low sodium levels), are also not typically associated with an increased risk of angina. While medical conditions like hypertension, diabetes, and smoking are other common risk factors for angina, hyperlipidemia is specifically known for its impact on blood vessels, making it a key risk factor to identify in a client's medical history.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is administering digoxin 0.125 mg Po to an adult client. For which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. An apical pulse below 60/min indicates bradycardia, a potential sign of digoxin toxicity. The nurse should report this finding to the provider for further evaluation and possible adjustment of the digoxin dose. Choice A, a potassium level of 4.2 mEq/L, is within the normal range (3.5-5.0 mEq/L) and does not indicate toxicity. Choice C, a digoxin level of 1 ng/ml, is within the therapeutic range (0.5-2 ng/ml) and is not suggestive of toxicity. Choice D, constipation for 2 days, is not directly related to digoxin administration and would not require an immediate report to the provider.
Question 3 of 5
A client with chronic kidney disease is being taught about dietary modifications by a nurse. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Cheddar cheese is high in phosphorus, which should be avoided by clients with chronic kidney disease. Fresh fruit is generally a healthy choice unless the client needs to limit potassium intake. Grilled chicken is a good protein source for clients with chronic kidney disease. White bread is low in phosphorus and can be included in the diet of clients with kidney disease unless they need to watch their carbohydrate intake.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is providing teaching to a client about the adverse effects of sertraline. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct adverse effect of sertraline that the nurse should include in the teaching is excessive sweating. Sertraline is known to cause this side effect in some individuals. Increased urinary frequency (choice B) is not a commonly reported adverse effect of sertraline. Dry cough (choice C) and metallic taste in the mouth (choice D) are also not typically associated with sertraline use. Therefore, the nurse should focus on educating the client about the potential adverse effect of excessive sweating.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is postoperative following a cataract extraction. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. After cataract surgery, wearing an eye shield at night for 2 weeks is essential to protect the eye during the initial healing period. Choice A is incorrect because significant eye pain should not be expected for the first 2 days after surgery. Choice B is incorrect as bending at the waist can increase intraocular pressure, which should be avoided postoperatively. Choice C is incorrect as there is no need to avoid sleeping on the side of the body that was operated on after cataract surgery.
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