ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a client who has Cushing's disease. The nurse should expect the client to have an increase in which of the following laboratory values?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum glucose level. In Cushing's disease, elevated cortisol levels lead to increased gluconeogenesis, insulin resistance, and breakdown of proteins and fats, resulting in elevated blood glucose levels. This is known as hyperglycemia. The other options, including serum calcium level (choice B), lymphocyte count (choice C), and serum potassium level (choice D), are not typically affected by Cushing's disease. Therefore, they are incorrect choices.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for nitroglycerin transdermal patches. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to rotate the patch site each time they apply it. This practice helps prevent skin irritation and ensures the effectiveness of nitroglycerin transdermal patches. Applying the patch to the same site each time can lead to skin irritation and decreased patch efficacy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because applying the patch to the upper arm, removing it before showering, and placing it on the lower abdomen do not promote proper rotation of patch sites, which is essential for optimal outcomes.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of the effectiveness of the treatment?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Clear breath sounds are an essential indicator of effective pneumonia treatment as they suggest resolution of the lung infection. A normal respiratory rate (A) indicates adequate breathing but does not directly reflect the effectiveness of pneumonia treatment. An elevated white blood cell count (B) is a sign of infection and may not decrease immediately with treatment. While maintaining an SpO2 of 95% (C) is crucial for oxygenation, it may not directly indicate the effectiveness of pneumonia treatment.
Question 4 of 5
A client in her second trimester of pregnancy is being taught by a nurse about managing nausea and vomiting. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Eating small, frequent meals is a recommended strategy to manage nausea and vomiting during pregnancy. This approach helps prevent an empty stomach, which can worsen symptoms. Option A is not as effective as eating small, frequent meals. Option C is unrelated to managing nausea and vomiting, and acetaminophen should only be taken as directed by a healthcare provider. Option D may help reduce nausea in some cases, but the most appropriate response related to managing symptoms is to eat small, frequent meals.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is preparing to perform a bladder scan for a client who has overflow incontinence. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to prepare the client for urinary catheterization. Overflow incontinence may indicate bladder distention, where a bladder scan helps assess the need for catheterization. Placing the client in a supine position (Choice A) is not directly related to the procedure. Obtaining a prescription for an indwelling catheter (Choice B) is not necessary before performing a bladder scan. Cleansing the client's abdomen with an antiseptic solution (Choice C) is not specific to preparing for a bladder scan in this situation.