ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of hypertension. Which of the following dietary recommendations should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to limit saturated fat intake to 7% of daily calories. This recommendation is crucial for clients with hypertension to lower cholesterol levels and promote heart health. Choice A, limiting sodium intake to 4 grams per day, is important for hypertension but not the best recommendation compared to limiting saturated fats. Choice B, limiting protein intake to 80 grams per day, is not a primary dietary concern for hypertension. Choice D, limiting fluid intake to 1,500 mL per day, is not a standard recommendation for hypertension management.
Question 2 of 5
A client is receiving opioid analgesics for pain management. Which of the following assessments is the priority?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Monitor the client's respiratory rate. When a client is receiving opioid analgesics, the priority assessment is monitoring respiratory rate. Opioids can cause respiratory depression, so it is crucial to assess the client's breathing to detect any signs of respiratory distress promptly. Checking the client's blood pressure (Choice A) and urinary output (Choice B) are important assessments too, but they are not the priority when compared to ensuring adequate respiratory function. Assessing the client's pain level (Choice D) is essential for overall care but is not the priority assessment when the client is on opioids, as respiratory status takes precedence.
Question 3 of 5
A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, a complication that should be reported in clients receiving TPN. Hypokalemia can lead to serious cardiac and neuromuscular complications. The other options are within normal ranges and do not indicate immediate concerns for a client receiving TPN. A blood glucose level of 130 mg/dL, serum sodium level of 140 mEq/L, and platelet count of 250,000/mm³ are all considered normal values and do not require immediate intervention.
Question 4 of 5
A client is at risk for developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take for a client at risk for developing DVT is to apply sequential compression devices to the client's legs. This intervention helps prevent venous stasis by promoting circulation and reducing the risk of DVT. Encouraging the client to remain on bed rest (Choice A) can actually increase the risk of DVT due to immobility. Massaging the client's legs every 4 hours (Choice B) can dislodge blood clots and is contraindicated in DVT prevention. While administering anticoagulants as prescribed (Choice D) is a treatment for DVT, it is not a preventive measure for a client at risk.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Serum albumin level. Monitoring the serum albumin level helps assess the nutritional effectiveness of total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Serum albumin is a protein that reflects the long-term nutritional status of a patient. Serum calcium level (choice A) is not directly related to TPN effectiveness. Blood glucose level (choice B) is important to monitor in diabetic patients but is not the primary indicator of TPN efficacy. Serum sodium level (choice D) is more related to fluid balance and electrolyte status rather than the effectiveness of TPN.