A nurse is providing teaching about food allergies to the parents of a toddler. Which of the following foods should the nurse identify as highest risk for allergies in toddlers?

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ATI Nutrition 2024 NGN Exam Questions

Question 1 of 5

A nurse is providing teaching about food allergies to the parents of a toddler. Which of the following foods should the nurse identify as highest risk for allergies in toddlers?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In pediatric nutrition, understanding food allergies is crucial for providing safe care. The correct answer is A) Eggs. Eggs are one of the most common food allergens in toddlers, often causing severe reactions. The proteins in eggs can trigger an immune response in susceptible individuals, leading to symptoms ranging from hives to anaphylaxis. Option B) Milk is another common allergen in toddlers, but it is not the highest risk compared to eggs. Milk allergies can cause gastrointestinal distress and skin reactions, but they are less likely to result in severe reactions compared to egg allergies. Option C) Bananas and option D) Citrus fruits are generally not top allergens in toddlers. While any food has the potential to cause an allergic reaction, these fruits are less likely to trigger allergies compared to eggs and milk. Educationally, it is important for nurses to prioritize teaching parents about high-risk allergens like eggs to help them prevent allergic reactions in their toddlers. Recognizing common allergens and understanding the signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction is essential for parents to keep their children safe and healthy.

Question 2 of 5

A nurse is providing education to a client who is experiencing dumping syndrome following gastric surgery. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In the context of dumping syndrome following gastric surgery, it is crucial for the client to consume a protein source with each meal. Protein helps slow down gastric emptying, which can reduce the severity of dumping syndrome symptoms such as diarrhea, dizziness, and weakness. By choosing option C, the client demonstrates an understanding of the importance of protein in managing their condition. Option A is incorrect because drinking additional fluids with meals can actually worsen dumping syndrome by rapidly increasing gastric volume and exacerbating symptoms. Option B is also incorrect as high-fiber snacks between meals can further aggravate dumping syndrome due to their potential to speed up gastrointestinal transit. Option D is incorrect as caffeinated beverages can stimulate gastric acid secretion and worsen symptoms of dumping syndrome. It is important to educate clients to avoid caffeinated beverages in order to manage their condition effectively. In an educational context, it is essential for nurses to provide clear and accurate information to clients experiencing dumping syndrome to help them make informed choices that promote their health and well-being. Understanding the rationale behind dietary recommendations can empower clients to take an active role in managing their condition and improving their quality of life post-gastric surgery.

Question 3 of 5

A nurse is initiating continuous enteral feedings for a client who has a new gastrostomy tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, option D, which states "Flush the client's tube with 30 mL of water every 4 hr," is the correct action for the nurse to take when initiating continuous enteral feedings for a client with a new gastrostomy tube. This action is crucial because flushing the tube with water helps prevent clogging and ensures proper tube patency, which is essential for the delivery of enteral feedings. Regular flushing also helps maintain tube integrity and reduces the risk of infection. Regarding the incorrect options: - Option A (Measure the client's gastric residual every 12 hr) is not the immediate action needed when initiating continuous enteral feedings. Checking residual volumes is important but typically done before feedings to assess tolerance. - Option B (Obtain the client's electrolyte levels every 4 hr) is excessive and not necessary at this frequency for a client with a new gastrostomy tube unless there are specific indications. - Option C (Keep the client's head elevated at 15* during feedings) is a general recommendation for preventing aspiration during feedings but is not directly related to the immediate action of tube flushing. Educationally, understanding the importance of tube maintenance, such as regular flushing, is essential for nurses caring for clients with enteral feeding tubes. It ensures safe and effective delivery of nutrition and helps prevent complications associated with tube malfunctions.

Question 4 of 5

A nurse is teaching an in-service about manifestations of hypoglycemia to a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In teaching about manifestations of hypoglycemia, it is crucial to highlight that blurred vision is a common symptom. This is because hypoglycemia impairs the function of the eyes due to decreased glucose supply to the optic nerves, leading to visual disturbances. By experiencing blurred vision, individuals may recognize this early warning sign and take necessary actions to manage their blood sugar levels promptly. In contrast, vomiting is more commonly associated with conditions like food poisoning or gastrointestinal issues rather than hypoglycemia. Kussmaul respirations are deep and rapid breathing patterns typically seen in diabetic ketoacidosis, a complication of uncontrolled diabetes, not hypoglycemia. Bradycardia, or a slow heart rate, is not a typical manifestation of hypoglycemia as the body usually responds to low blood sugar levels by increasing heart rate to compensate for the lack of energy. Educationally, emphasizing the specific signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia helps healthcare professionals differentiate it from other conditions, enabling timely and appropriate interventions. Understanding these distinctions is crucial for providing safe and effective patient care, especially for individuals with diabetes or those at risk of hypoglycemia.

Question 5 of 5

A nurse is assessing a client who has a stage III pressure ulcer that is healing poorly. The nurse should identify that which of the following vitamin deficiencies increases the client's risk for delayed wound healing?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In the context of wound healing, the correct answer is option A) Vitamin C. Vitamin C plays a crucial role in the synthesis of collagen, a key component of connective tissue and skin. Collagen is essential for wound repair and the formation of new tissue. A deficiency in Vitamin C can impair collagen production, leading to delayed wound healing. Option B) Vitamin D is important for bone health and immune function but does not have a direct role in collagen synthesis or wound healing. Option C) Vitamin E is an antioxidant that helps protect cells from damage but does not directly impact collagen production or wound healing. Option D) Vitamin B6 is involved in protein metabolism but does not have a direct role in collagen synthesis or wound healing. Educationally, understanding the role of vitamins in wound healing is essential for nurses caring for patients with pressure ulcers or other wounds. Nurses need to assess for potential deficiencies, provide appropriate nutrition interventions, and collaborate with healthcare providers to optimize healing outcomes. This knowledge helps in developing comprehensive care plans tailored to individual patient needs.

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