Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

ATI Exit Exam Questions

Question 1 of 5

A nurse is providing education to a client who is at 28 weeks gestation and has gestational diabetes mellitus. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement the nurse should make is that gestational diabetes can increase the risk of developing type 2 diabetes later in life. This information is crucial for the client's understanding of the potential long-term implications of gestational diabetes. Monitoring blood glucose levels closely (Choice B) is also important but does not address the long-term risk of developing type 2 diabetes. Choices A and D are incorrect as increasing protein intake during pregnancy and avoiding exercise are not recommended strategies for managing gestational diabetes.

Question 2 of 5

A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and requires augmentation of labor. Which of the following conditions should the nurse recognize as a contraindication to the use of oxytocin?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Shoulder presentation is a contraindication for oxytocin because it can increase the risk of complications during labor, such as shoulder dystocia. Diabetes mellitus (Choice A) is not a contraindication for the use of oxytocin. Postterm with oligohydramnios (Choice C) and chorioamnionitis (Choice D) may actually necessitate the use of oxytocin to induce or augment labor for the well-being of the mother and baby.

Question 3 of 5

A nurse is caring for an adolescent who has sickle-cell anemia. Which of the following manifestations indicates acute chest syndrome and should be immediately reported to the provider?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Substernal retractions indicate respiratory distress in a sickle-cell client, which can be a sign of acute chest syndrome. This condition is a serious complication of sickle-cell anemia characterized by chest pain, fever, cough, and shortness of breath. Reporting this symptom promptly is crucial for timely intervention. Choice B, hematuria, is not typically associated with acute chest syndrome but may indicate other issues such as a urinary tract infection. Choice C, a temperature of 37.9°C (100.2°F), is slightly elevated but not a specific indicator of acute chest syndrome. Choice D, sneezing, is not a typical symptom of acute chest syndrome and would not warrant immediate reporting to the provider in this context.

Question 4 of 5

A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of digoxin to a client who has heart failure. Which of the following actions should the nurse take prior to administering the medication?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take prior to administering digoxin is to assess the client's apical pulse. Digoxin is known to affect the heart rate, potentially causing bradycardia. Monitoring the client's respiratory rate (Choice A) is not directly related to administering digoxin. Reviewing the client's potassium level (Choice C) is important but not a direct prerequisite for administering digoxin. Monitoring the client's fluid intake (Choice D) is also important but not a specific action to take just before administering digoxin.

Question 5 of 5

A client with a history of heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium 3.2 mEq/L. A potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is below the normal range and should be monitored in clients receiving furosemide due to the risk of hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are not directly impacted by furosemide therapy in the same way as potassium levels, making them less relevant for monitoring in this scenario.

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