ATI RN
ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1 Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is starting to take carbidopa/levodopa to treat Parkinson's disease. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction to include in the teaching is that carbidopa/levodopa can cause the client's urine to turn a dark color, which is a harmless effect. It is crucial for the nurse to educate the client about this common side effect. Choice B is incorrect because immediate relief is not expected; therapeutic effects may take weeks to months. Choice C is incorrect as carbidopa/levodopa should be taken on an empty stomach to enhance absorption. Choice D is incorrect as the client should not skip doses without consulting their healthcare provider, even if they experience dizziness.
Question 2 of 9
A client with MĩniĬre's disease is experiencing episodes of vertigo. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with MĩniĬre's disease experiencing vertigo is to provide a low sodium diet. This helps reduce fluid retention, which can alleviate the symptoms of MĩniĬre's disease. Maintaining strict bed rest is not necessary and can lead to deconditioning. Restricting fluid intake to the morning hours does not specifically address the underlying cause of MĩniĬre's disease. Administering aspirin is not indicated for MĩniĬre's disease and can potentially worsen symptoms.
Question 3 of 9
A patient is receiving discharge instructions for GERD. Which of the following statements by the patient demonstrates an understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Patients with GERD should avoid activities that increase intra-abdominal pressure, such as bending at the waist, as this can lead to reflux. Choice A is incorrect because medications for GERD are usually taken with water, not citrus juices. Choice B is incorrect as having a bedtime snack can worsen GERD symptoms. Choice C is incorrect because lying down after meals can also exacerbate reflux due to the effects of gravity.
Question 4 of 9
A healthcare professional is preparing a client for a colonoscopy. Which of the following medications should the professional anticipate the provider to prescribe as an anesthetic for the procedure?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Propofol. Propofol is a short-acting anesthetic medication commonly used for procedures like colonoscopies to induce moderate sedation. Pancuronium (Choice B) is a neuromuscular blocking agent used as a paralyzing agent during surgery, not for sedation. Promethazine (Choice C) is an antihistamine often used for nausea and vomiting, not as an anesthetic. Pentoxifylline (Choice D) is a medication used to improve blood flow and is not indicated for anesthesia.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of tuberculosis. Which of the following precautions should the nurse initiate to prevent transmission of the disease?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Tuberculosis is spread through small droplets measuring less than 5 microns, which can remain airborne for extended periods. The nurse should place a client who has TB under airborne precautions to prevent the spread of microbes. Choice A, contact precautions, are used for diseases spread by direct or indirect contact. Choice C, droplet precautions, are for diseases spread by larger droplets. Choice D, protective environment, is used for immunocompromised clients to protect them from environmental pathogens.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is teaching a group of clients about the risk factors for osteoporosis. Which of the following should the nurse include as a risk factor for osteoporosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Early menopause. A client who goes into early menopause, from natural or surgical causes, is at a greater risk for developing osteoporosis due to the rapid drop in estrogen levels. Choice B, history of falls, is not a direct risk factor for osteoporosis but rather a risk for fractures related to osteoporosis. Choice C, African American race, is actually associated with a lower risk of osteoporosis. Choice D, obesity, is considered a protective factor against osteoporosis as excess weight can provide additional support to bones.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is caring for a client who is hyperventilating and has the following ABG results: pH 7.50, PaCO2 29 mm Hg, and HCO3- 25 mEq/L. The nurse should recognize that the client has which of the following acid-base imbalances?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Respiratory alkalosis. In this scenario, the client is experiencing respiratory alkalosis due to hyperventilation. Hyperventilation leads to excessive loss of carbon dioxide, causing a decrease in hydrogen ion concentration and an increase in pH levels. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Respiratory acidosis is characterized by high PaCO2 and low pH. Metabolic acidosis is associated with low HCO3- levels and low pH. Metabolic alkalosis is marked by high HCO3- levels and high pH. In this case, the ABG results indicate respiratory alkalosis.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is providing dietary teaching for a client who has chronic cholecystitis. Which of the following diets should the nurse recommend?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Low fat diet. A low-fat diet is recommended for clients with chronic cholecystitis to reduce episodes of biliary colic. High-fat foods can trigger symptoms by causing the gallbladder to contract, leading to pain. Choice A, a low potassium diet, is not specifically indicated for chronic cholecystitis. Choice B, a high fiber diet, though generally healthy, may worsen symptoms in some individuals with cholecystitis due to the increased intestinal gas production. Choice D, a low sodium diet, is not directly related to the management of chronic cholecystitis.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse is teaching a client about using a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) device to treat obstructive sleep apnea. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because a CPAP device delivers a preset amount of positive airway pressure continuously throughout all inspiration and expiration cycles. Choice A is incorrect because CPAP does not deliver inspiratory pressure at the beginning of each breath; it provides continuous positive pressure. Choice B is incorrect because CPAP typically delivers a constant pressure rather than having a feature that changes pressure throughout the cycle. Choice D is incorrect as CPAP does not deliver positive pressure specifically at the end of each breath; it maintains a consistent pressure throughout the breathing cycle.