ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2024 Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a group of clients. The nurse should recommend a referral to a dietitian.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which means it helps the body retain potassium and excrete sodium and water. Therefore, clients on spironolactone should reduce their intake of foods high in potassium to prevent hyperkalemia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because limiting spinach intake due to warfarin, eating anchovies with gout, and taking calcium carbonate with water for osteoporosis do not directly relate to the medication's side effects or dietary restrictions associated with spironolactone.
Question 2 of 5
A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for ceftriaxone. The healthcare professional should identify which of the following findings as a contraindication to this medication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Penicillin allergy. Penicillin allergy is a contraindication for ceftriaxone because both medications are beta-lactam antibiotics. Seizure disorder (choice A), hypertension (choice B), and hyperlipidemia (choice D) are not contraindications for ceftriaxone and do not directly affect the use of this antibiotic.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of hypercholesterolemia. Which of the following dietary recommendations should the nurse make?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Choose foods low in trans fats.' Trans fats are known to increase cholesterol levels, so avoiding foods high in trans fats is essential in managing hypercholesterolemia. Option A, increasing intake of red meat, and option B, consuming foods high in saturated fats, can worsen cholesterol levels as they are sources of unhealthy fats. Option D, limiting intake of vegetables and fruits, is incorrect as they are part of a heart-healthy diet and should be encouraged for individuals with hypercholesterolemia.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for clozapine. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the WBC count. Clozapine can cause agranulocytosis, a severe decrease in WBC count, which can increase the risk of infection. Monitoring the WBC count is essential to detect this potentially life-threatening condition early. Monitoring blood glucose levels (Choice A) is not directly related to clozapine use. Platelet count (Choice C) and hemoglobin levels (Choice D) are not typically affected by clozapine and are not the priority for monitoring in this case.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer vancomycin IV to a client who has methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take is to administer the medication over 60 minutes. This is important because administering vancomycin over 60 minutes helps prevent red man syndrome, a reaction that can occur with rapid infusion. Monitoring the client's blood glucose level (Choice B) is unrelated to vancomycin administration. Infusing the medication rapidly (Choice C) is incorrect and can lead to adverse reactions. Administering the medication using a filter needle (Choice D) is unnecessary for vancomycin administration.