ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client with irritable bowel syndrome. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Consume foods high in bran fiber. Bran fiber helps alleviate symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome by promoting regular bowel movements. Choice B is incorrect as increasing intake of milk products may exacerbate symptoms in some individuals with irritable bowel syndrome who are lactose intolerant. Choice C is incorrect as fructose corn syrup may worsen symptoms due to its high fructose content, which can be poorly absorbed in some individuals with irritable bowel syndrome. Choice D is incorrect as increasing foods high in gluten may be problematic for individuals with irritable bowel syndrome who have gluten sensitivity or celiac disease.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is calculating a client's expected date of delivery. The client's last menstrual period began on April 12. Using Nagele's rule, what date should the nurse determine to be the client's expected delivery date?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Nagele's rule is a method used to calculate the expected delivery date by subtracting 3 months from the first day of the last menstrual period and adding 7 days. In this case, April 12 minus 3 months is January 12, plus 7 days gives January 19. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Choices B, C, and D do not align with the application of Nagele's rule and are incorrect.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous cardiac monitoring. The client's heart rate is 69/min, and the PR interval is 0.24 seconds. What cardiac rhythm should the nurse interpret this finding as?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: First-degree AV block. A PR interval of 0.24 seconds indicates a prolonged PR interval, which is characteristic of first-degree AV block. This rhythm is considered benign and often does not require treatment. Choice B, premature ventricular contraction, is characterized by early, abnormal ventricular contractions and would not be indicated by the findings provided. Choice C, sinus bradycardia, would present with a normal PR interval but a heart rate less than 60 beats per minute. Choice D, atrial fibrillation, is characterized by an irregularly irregular rhythm with no identifiable P waves, which does not align with the findings of a prolonged PR interval in this scenario.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a craniotomy. Which of the following findings indicates the client is developing diabetes insipidus?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Polyuria is the correct finding indicating the client is developing diabetes insipidus. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by the excretion of large volumes of diluted urine due to a deficiency in antidiuretic hormone. This results in increased urine output (polyuria) despite adequate fluid intake. Hypertension (choice B) is not typically associated with diabetes insipidus but can be seen in other conditions. Bradycardia (choice C) and hyperglycemia (choice D) are also not typical findings of diabetes insipidus.
Question 5 of 5
A client reports that the medication appears different than what they take at home. Which of the following responses should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Contacting the pharmacist is the most appropriate action to ensure the correct medication is being administered. This response addresses the client's concern directly and prioritizes patient safety. The other options do not directly address the issue of the medication discrepancy. Option A focuses on the healthcare provider's discussion, not the medication itself. Option B assumes that the current medication is correct without verification. Option C addresses the reason for the prescription but does not verify the medication's correctness.
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