ATI RN
ATI Capstone Pharmacology Assessment 1 Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse is providing care to a client with staphylococcus epidermidis who is prescribed vancomycin. Identify the adverse effect associated with the antibiotic therapy.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Infusion reaction. Vancomycin can cause infusion reactions like 'Red Man Syndrome,' which involves rashes, flushing, tachycardia, and hypotension. Hepatotoxicity (choice A) is not a common adverse effect of vancomycin. Constipation (choice B) is not typically associated with vancomycin use. Immunosuppression (choice D) is not a direct adverse effect of vancomycin therapy.
Question 2 of 9
A client has been prescribed metoclopramide. Which of the following should the nurse include in client education regarding this medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Notify your provider if you experience restlessness or spasms of the face or neck.' Metoclopramide can lead to extrapyramidal symptoms such as restlessness or facial spasms, which are serious and require immediate medical attention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Insomnia is not a common side effect of metoclopramide. Increasing fluid intake is usually recommended to prevent dehydration caused by potential side effects like diarrhea. Urinary frequency is not a typical side effect associated with metoclopramide.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is caring for a client with hypothyroidism. Which of the following findings indicates that the client is experiencing an adverse effect from the prescribed levothyroxine?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Tachycardia is the correct answer as it is an adverse effect of levothyroxine. Levothyroxine is a medication used to treat hypothyroidism by supplementing the body with thyroid hormone. Tachycardia, or a fast heart rate, can indicate an overdosage or increased sensitivity to levothyroxine. Bradycardia, slow heart rate, weight loss, and increased appetite are not typically associated with adverse effects of levothyroxine. Bradycardia may actually be a symptom of untreated hypothyroidism.
Question 4 of 9
A client has been prescribed isosorbide mononitrate. Which of the following should the nurse include in the client education related to this medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because isosorbide mononitrate is used for long-term prophylaxis against anginal attacks. Choice B is incorrect because isosorbide mononitrate should not be crushed. Choice C does not specify a particular time for medication administration. Choice D is incorrect because isosorbide mononitrate is not meant to be taken as needed for chest pain; it is part of a long-term therapy plan.
Question 5 of 9
A client is prescribed HMG CoA reductase inhibitor, atorvastatin. Which of the following should be monitored while this medication is prescribed?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Liver function tests. Atorvastatin, an HMG CoA reductase inhibitor, can lead to hepatotoxicity, making it essential to monitor liver function tests regularly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because atorvastatin primarily affects the liver, not the kidneys, vision, or hearing.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is caring for a client prescribed digoxin. Which of the following should alert the nurse to possible digitalis toxicity?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anorexia and weakness. These symptoms are early indicators of potential digitalis toxicity. Anorexia refers to a loss of appetite, which can be a sign of toxicity, and weakness can indicate an issue with digoxin. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hyperactivity and hunger, tachycardia and increased urination, as well as polyphagia and polydipsia are not typically associated with digitalis toxicity.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is preparing to administer furosemide to a client. Which of the following findings indicates the client may be at risk for an adverse effect of the medication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, leading to hypokalemia, which is a common adverse effect. Hypokalemia can result in serious complications like cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, C, and D are not directly associated with the adverse effects of furosemide. Hypertension is a condition that furosemide is often used to treat, increased urine output is an expected effect of furosemide, and hyperglycemia is not a typical adverse effect of this medication.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is reviewing a client's new prescription for albuterol. What client education should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Albuterol is a rescue inhaler that should be used during asthma attacks to provide quick relief by opening the airways. Using it daily as a preventive measure is not recommended. Choice A is incorrect because a dry cough is not a common side effect of albuterol. Choice C is incorrect as albuterol does not need to be taken with food. Choice D is incorrect because albuterol is not meant to be used daily for asthma prevention.
Question 9 of 9
A healthcare provider is preparing to administer heparin sodium to a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following laboratory values should the provider monitor during therapy?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: aPTT. The healthcare provider should monitor the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) value during heparin therapy to assess the client's coagulation status. Heparin affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, and monitoring aPTT helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent bleeding or clotting issues. INR (Choice A) is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Serum creatinine (Choice B) is not directly related to monitoring heparin therapy. Bilirubin (Choice D) is related to liver function, not heparin therapy.