ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Mental Health Quiz Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse is providing care to a client with Alzheimer's disease who is exhibiting suspiciousness and delusional thinking. Which of the following would be most important for the nurse to do with this client?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, determining the trigger for the distorted thinking. This is important as it helps identify potential causes of the client's suspiciousness and delusional thinking, allowing for targeted interventions. Option A may increase client distress. Option B may lead to conflict. Option C may invalidate the client's experiences.
Question 2 of 9
What are the three components of evidence-based practice?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: research/client preference/nurse competency. Evidence-based practice involves integrating the best available research evidence with a patient's preferences and the nurse's clinical expertise. Research ensures interventions are based on proven effectiveness. Client preference acknowledges the importance of individual needs and values. Nurse competency ensures that care is delivered skillfully. Choice B (nurse experience/collaboration/teamwork) lacks the essential component of research evidence, which is crucial for evidence-based practice. While collaboration and teamwork are important, they do not encompass all three components. Choice C (research/client safety/client preference) includes client safety, which is essential but does not cover nurse competency, a key component of evidence-based practice. Choice D (nurse experience/client teaching/delegation) misses the mark by not including research evidence and client preference, which are integral to evidence-based practice. Delegation and client teaching are important but not part of the core components.
Question 3 of 9
A client tells the nurse that he is committed to trying to quit smoking. When teaching the client about smoking cessation, which of the following would the nurse include?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because smoking cessation success often requires a combination of interventions like counseling, medication, and support. This approach addresses physical and psychological aspects of addiction, increasing the chances of success. Choice B is incorrect as relapse rates are high in the first year after quitting. Choice C is incorrect as ear acupressure lacks strong scientific evidence for smoking cessation. Choice D is incorrect as education alone is usually insufficient for successful smoking cessation.
Question 4 of 9
Which principle should guide the nurse in determining the extent of silence to use during patient interview sessions?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because utilizing silence during patient interviews allows for meaningful moments of reflection, fostering a deeper connection and promoting patient introspection. This principle aligns with therapeutic communication techniques that encourage patients to explore their thoughts and feelings. Choice A is incorrect because nurses should respect and utilize silence when appropriate. Choice B is incorrect as prolonged silences can encourage patient self-reflection. Choice D is incorrect because silence is not solely about confirming understanding, but also about creating a space for patients to process their thoughts.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is caring for a client receiving IV moderate sedation with midazolam. The client has a respiratory rate of 9/min and is not responding to commands. Which of the following is an appropriate action by the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Implement positive pressure ventilation. This action is appropriate because the client's respiratory rate of 9/min indicates hypoventilation, which can lead to hypoxemia and respiratory arrest. Positive pressure ventilation helps support adequate oxygenation and ventilation. Placing the client in a prone position (choice A) can further compromise breathing. Nasopharyngeal suctioning (choice C) is not indicated unless airway obstruction is confirmed. Administering flumazenil (choice D) is contraindicated in clients with significant respiratory depression due to the risk of precipitating seizures.
Question 6 of 9
Many people allow life circumstances to dictate their amount of sleep instead of recognizing sleep as a priority. Which statement will the nurse recognize as progress in the patient's sleep hygiene program?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because removing the television from the bedroom is a positive step towards improving sleep hygiene. TVs emit blue light, which can disrupt sleep. This action creates a better sleep environment. A: Going to bed when not sleepy can lead to frustration, making it harder to fall asleep. B: Consuming alcohol before bed can disrupt sleep patterns and quality. C: Taking daily naps can interfere with the ability to fall asleep at night and disrupt the sleep-wake cycle.
Question 7 of 9
Ted, a former executive, is now unemployed due to manic episodes at work. He was diagnosed with bipolar I 8 years ago. Ted has a history of IV drug abuse, which resulted in hepatitis C. He is taking his lithium exactly as scheduled, a fact that both Ted's wife and his blood tests confirm. To reduce Ted's mania the psychiatric nurse practitioner recommends:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Lurasidone (Latuda). Lurasidone is an atypical antipsychotic commonly used to treat bipolar disorder. It helps stabilize mood and reduce symptoms of mania. Given Ted's history of bipolar I and manic episodes, lurasidone is an appropriate choice. Clonazepam (A) is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety, not mania. Fluoxetine (B) is an SSRI antidepressant, which can potentially worsen manic symptoms. Electroconvulsive therapy (C) is typically reserved for severe cases or when other treatments have failed, and may not be necessary in Ted's case. Lurasidone (D) is the most suitable option for managing Ted's mania while considering his medical history and current treatment.
Question 8 of 9
A person was supposed to meet a friend at a local theatre to see a movie. The friend never showed up. The person's initial thought was, 'My friend didn't come because she doesn't like me.' This automatic thought was most likely inferred from which irrational belief?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "I'm worthless, so no one could really want to be my friend." This automatic thought reflects the irrational belief of personal worthlessness leading to the assumption that others do not genuinely like or care about the person. This cognitive distortion is known as personalization, where the individual attributes external events to themselves in a negative way. In this scenario, the person's immediate conclusion that the friend didn't show up because of a personal flaw is an example of personalization. Other choices are incorrect because: B: "Movies are a waste of time and money anyway." - This choice introduces a different irrational belief about movies, not about personal worthiness. C: "I'm sure she just got confused and thought we were going to a different movie." - This choice reflects a more neutral assumption without negative self-evaluation. D: "I'm so forgetful and confused sometimes; I probably wrote down the wrong time." - This choice involves self-blame for a practical
Question 9 of 9
A client diagnosed with male orgasmic dysfunction is receiving desensitization as part of the treatment plan. The nurse understands that this treatment focuses on achieving which of the following?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Desensitization aims to reduce anxiety and fear associated with sexual activity in male orgasmic dysfunction. By gradually exposing the client to sexual stimuli and teaching relaxation techniques, anxiety and fear decrease, leading to improved sexual function. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as desensitization primarily targets anxiety and fear, not pressure to perform, pleasure awareness, or spectatoring.