ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
When discussing the main differences between narcolepsy and obstructive sleep apnea syndrome, what should the nurse highlight?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Narcolepsy is characterized by excessive daytime sleepiness and sudden attacks of sleep, while individuals with narcolepsy often feel refreshed after a brief nap. In contrast, obstructive sleep apnea syndrome is marked by pauses in breathing or shallow breathing during sleep, leading to fragmented sleep and excessive daytime sleepiness. Therefore, the correct answer is that individuals with narcolepsy awaken from a nap feeling rested and replenished, which is a key distinguishing feature from obstructive sleep apnea syndrome.
Question 2 of 5
A 10-year-old boy breaks his mother's vase while playing. When the mother asks who broke the vase, the little boy says that his sister did it. The little boy is exhibiting which defense mechanism?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Projection is a defense mechanism where one attributes their own unacceptable thoughts, feelings, or impulses onto another person. In this scenario, the little boy is projecting his actions onto his sister by falsely claiming she broke the vase. Displacement involves transferring emotions from the original source to a substitute target. Dissociation is a disconnection between thoughts, identity, consciousness, and memory. Sublimation is the redirection of unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable activities.
Question 3 of 5
A client is diagnosed with somatic symptom disorder. Which question will help the nurse develop nursing diagnoses for this client's plan of care?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In clients with somatic symptom disorder, it is crucial to assess their adherence to medication for anxiety as prescribed. This question helps the nurse understand the client's treatment compliance, which can impact the development of nursing diagnoses and the overall plan of care. Monitoring medication adherence is essential in managing the client's symptoms and improving outcomes.
Question 4 of 5
During a treatment team meeting, the point is made that a client with schizophrenia has recovered from the acute psychosis but continues to demonstrate apathy, avolition, and blunted affect. The nurse who relates these symptoms to serotonin excess will suggest that the client receive?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the symptoms of apathy, avolition, and blunted affect are indicative of negative symptoms commonly seen in schizophrenia. These symptoms are often associated with dopamine and serotonin imbalances in the brain. Olanzapine, an atypical antipsychotic, is known for its efficacy in treating both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia. It acts by blocking serotonin and dopamine receptors, helping to alleviate the symptoms mentioned. Chlorpromazine and Haloperidol are typical antipsychotics that primarily target dopamine receptors, while Phenelzine is an MAOI used to treat depression and anxiety disorders, not schizophrenia. Therefore, the most appropriate choice for this client displaying these symptoms related to serotonin excess would be Olanzapine.
Question 5 of 5
The client recently survived a plane crash and is assessed by the nurse. Which client statement would cause the nurse to suspect that the client may be experiencing PTSD?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Experiencing intrusive thoughts about a traumatic event, such as a plane crash, that occur unexpectedly and repeatedly is a common symptom of Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD). These thoughts can be distressing and are often a key indicator of PTSD. Options A, B, and C demonstrate coping mechanisms and fears related to the traumatic event but do not specifically address the hallmark symptom of intrusive thoughts. Therefore, option D is the correct choice as it aligns with a potential symptom of PTSD.
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