A nurse is preparing to perform an intramuscular (IM) injection for a patient. What action should the nurse take to ensure proper injection technique?

Questions 165

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Adult Health Nursing Test Banks Questions

Question 1 of 5

A nurse is preparing to perform an intramuscular (IM) injection for a patient. What action should the nurse take to ensure proper injection technique?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: When performing an intramuscular (IM) injection, the nurse should insert the needle at a 90-degree angle into the muscle. This angle helps ensure proper and deep penetration into the muscle tissue for effective administration of the medication. It also helps prevent leakage or tissue damage at the injection site. Additionally, inserting the needle at a 90-degree angle facilitates accurate delivery of the medication into the muscle where it can be absorbed properly. Therefore, selecting the correct angle for inserting the needle is critical in ensuring the success and effectiveness of the IM injection.

Question 2 of 5

A patient presents with well-demarcated, erythematous plaques with silvery scales on the trunk and extensor surfaces of the limbs. The patient reports a family history of similar skin lesions. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The patient's presentation of well-demarcated, erythematous plaques with silvery scales on the trunk and extensor surfaces of the limbs is classic for psoriasis. Additionally, the family history of similar skin lesions further supports the diagnosis of psoriasis, as it is a condition with a genetic predisposition. Pityriasis rosea typically presents with a herald patch followed by oval, scaly lesions in a Christmas tree pattern. Erythema multiforme is characterized by target-like lesions. Lichen planus presents as purple, polygonal, flat-topped papules that may have fine white lines on their surface known as Wickham striae.

Question 3 of 5

A patient presents with a well-demarcated, hyperpigmented patch with irregular borders and asymmetric color distribution on the face. The lesion has increased in size over the past few months. Which of the following conditions is most concerning for this presentation?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The presentation described, including a well-demarcated, hyperpigmented patch with irregular borders, asymmetric color distribution, and increase in size over a short period, is concerning for melanoma. Melanoma is a type of skin cancer that arises from melanocytes, the cells that produce pigment in the skin. The irregular borders, color variation, and growth over time are classic signs of melanoma. Melanomas are potentially dangerous and should be evaluated promptly by a healthcare provider for proper diagnosis and treatment. It is important to distinguish melanoma from other benign lesions like melanocytic nevus (mole), lentigo simplex, and seborrheic keratosis, as early detection and treatment of melanoma can significantly impact patient outcomes.

Question 4 of 5

A patient presents with well-demarcated, hypopigmented macules with fine scaling, affecting the trunk and proximal extremities. The patient reports a history of sun exposure and outdoor activities. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The presentation of well-demarcated, hypopigmented macules with fine scaling on the trunk and proximal extremities is classic for tinea versicolor. Tinea versicolor is a common superficial fungal infection caused by Malassezia spp., which leads to hypo- or hyperpigmented patches on the skin. The condition often occurs in individuals with increased sebum production due to factors such as hot and humid climates, sweating, and oily skin. History of sun exposure and outdoor activities is also commonly reported by patients with tinea versicolor. Treatment usually involves antifungal medications applied topically or taken orally to eliminate the fungus. Differentiating tinea versicolor from other skin conditions, such as vitiligo, pityriasis rosea, or seborrheic keratosis, is important for appropriate management.

Question 5 of 5

A patient presents with recurrent episodes of epistaxis, particularly after blowing the nose or during dry weather. Anterior rhinoscopy reveals a friable, vascular lesion in Little's area. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for managing this condition?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The clinical scenario described is consistent with a diagnosis of anterior epistaxis due to a prominent vascular lesion located in Little's area, which is an important site for nosebleeds. Silver nitrate cautery is the most appropriate intervention for managing this condition. Silver nitrate cautery is a commonly used method to chemically cauterize and eliminate the friable blood vessels responsible for recurrent epistaxis. It is a cost-effective and minimally invasive technique that can be easily performed in an outpatient setting. Nasal packing with anterior nasal tampons might be considered in cases of severe or refractory epistaxis, but in this scenario, where the source of bleeding is localized and identifiable, silver nitrate cautery is the treatment of choice. Endoscopic cauterization of the sphenopalatine artery and surgical excision of a nasal polyp are unnecessary and overly invasive for the described scenario.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days

Similar Questions