ATI RN
foundations of nursing test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse is preparing to lavage a patient in theemergency department for an overdose. Which tube should the nurse obtain?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ewald tube. This tube is used for gastric lavage due to its large diameter and open end which allows for effective suction of gastric contents. The Ewald tube is specifically designed for gastric lavage and is ideal for removing toxins from the stomach. Summary of why the other choices are incorrect: B: Dobhoff tube is a small-bore feeding tube, not suitable for gastric lavage. C: Miller-Abbott tube is used for intestinal decompression, not gastric lavage. D: Sengstaken-Blakemore tube is used for esophageal varices, not gastric lavage.
Question 2 of 9
The organization of a patients care on the palliative care unit is based on interdisciplinary collaboration. How does interdisciplinary collaboration differ from multidisciplinary practice?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Interdisciplinary collaboration involves clinicians from different backgrounds integrating their separate plans of care, ensuring a holistic approach to patient care. This fosters a comprehensive understanding of the patient's needs and individualized care. In contrast, multidisciplinary practice involves clinicians working independently without integrating their plans, potentially leading to fragmented care. Choice A is incorrect as interdisciplinary collaboration does have a team leader to coordinate and facilitate communication among team members. Choice C is incorrect because while communication and cooperation are essential in interdisciplinary collaboration, the key distinction is the integration of different perspectives and plans of care. Choice D is incorrect as interdisciplinary collaboration goes beyond just medical expertise and patient preference, involving professionals from various disciplines working together to address all aspects of patient care.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is reviewing results from a urine specimen.What will the nurse expect to see in a patient with a urinary tract infection?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bacteria. In a patient with a urinary tract infection (UTI), bacteria are typically present in the urine due to the infection of the urinary system. Bacteria may be detected through urine culture or microscopic examination. A: Casts are not typically associated with UTIs but can indicate kidney disease. B: Protein in the urine can indicate kidney damage or other issues, not specific to UTIs. C: Crystals in the urine can be normal or indicate specific conditions, but they are not specific to UTIs. In summary, the presence of bacteria in the urine is a key indicator of a UTI, while the other choices are more indicative of different conditions or factors.
Question 4 of 9
A patient comes to the ophthalmology clinic for an eye examination. The patient tells the nurse that he often sees floaters in his vision. How should the nurse best interpret this subjective assessment finding?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because floaters are commonly caused by age-related changes in the vitreous humor of the eye, such as the formation of tiny fibers or clumps. These floaters are typically harmless and not a cause for concern. Choice B is incorrect because glasses do not affect floaters in the eye. Choice C is incorrect because floaters are not a primary symptom of glaucoma. Choice D is incorrect because weakened ciliary muscles are not typically associated with floaters. Therefore, the most appropriate interpretation is that seeing floaters is a normal aging process of the eye.
Question 5 of 9
The hospice nurse is caring for a patient with cancer in her home. The nurse has explained to the patient and the family that the patient is at risk for hypercalcemia and has educated them on that signs and symptoms of this health problem. What else should the nurse teach this patient and family to do to reduce the patients risk of hypercalcemia?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Option C is correct because adequate hydration helps prevent hypercalcemia by promoting the excretion of excess calcium in the urine. This reduces the risk of calcium buildup in the blood. Consuming 2 to 4 liters of fluid daily ensures proper hydration, which is crucial for patients at risk for hypercalcemia. Stool softeners (Option A) are not contraindicated and can help prevent constipation, which may be a side effect of some cancer treatments. Laxatives (Option B) should not be taken daily as they can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Restricting calcium intake (Option D) is not the primary intervention for preventing hypercalcemia; rather, maintaining adequate hydration is key.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is teaching a patient about the urinarysystem. In which order will the nurse present the structures, following the flow of urine?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct order is B: Kidney, ureters, bladder, urethra. 1. Kidneys filter blood and produce urine. 2. Ureters transport urine from kidneys to bladder. 3. Bladder stores urine until expelled. 4. Urethra carries urine from bladder out of the body. Other choices are incorrect because they do not follow the anatomical flow of urine through the urinary system.
Question 7 of 9
A patient is being discharged home after mastoid surgery. What topic should the nurse address in the patients discharge education?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: After mastoid surgery, patients may experience pain and dizziness, hence addressing the safe use of analgesics and antivertiginous agents is crucial for symptom management. Step 2: Analgesics help in managing post-operative pain, while antivertiginous agents help control dizziness, reducing the risk of falls. Step 3: Educating the patient on safe use ensures proper pain and symptom management, preventing complications. Step 4: Other choices are incorrect as they do not directly address immediate post-operative care needs such as pain and dizziness management.
Question 8 of 9
In determining malnourishment in a patient, which assessment finding is consistent with this disorder?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Malnourishment often leads to iron deficiency anemia, causing spoon-shaped nails (koilonychia). Step 2: Koilonychia is a classic sign of chronic malnutrition and iron deficiency. Step 3: Moist lips (A) and pink conjunctivae (B) are not specific to malnourishment. Step 4: Not easily plucked hair (D) is more related to hair health rather than malnutrition.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient newly diagnosed with a primary brain tumor. The patient asks the nurse where his tumor came from. What would be the nurses best response?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because primary brain tumors originate from cells within the brain itself. These tumors develop from abnormal growth of brain cells. Choice A is incorrect as primary brain tumors do not come from outside the central nervous system (CNS). Choice B is incorrect as primary brain tumors do not typically start in glands. Choice D is incorrect as primary brain tumors do not arise from nerve tissue elsewhere in the body. In summary, the nurse should explain to the patient that the tumor originated from cells within his brain to provide accurate information about the nature of primary brain tumors.