ATI RN
Nursing Process Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse is preparing to conduct a health history for a client who is confined to bed. How should the nurse position herself?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Sitting at a 45-degree angle to the bed. This position allows the nurse to have a clear view of the client and maintain good communication. Sitting at a 45-degree angle enables the nurse to observe the client's facial expressions, body language, and interact effectively. Standing at the end of the bed (A) limits the nurse's view and communication. Standing at the side of the bed (B) may obstruct the nurse-client interaction. Sitting at least six feet away (C) creates unnecessary distance and hinders effective communication.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the ff should the nurse include in the teaching plan of a client with acute bronchitis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Washing the hands frequently. This is important for preventing the spread of infection, which is crucial in acute bronchitis. By washing hands frequently, the client can reduce the risk of transmitting the infection to others and prevent reinfection. A: Not coughing frequently - While managing cough is important, it is not the most crucial aspect in the teaching plan for acute bronchitis. C: Consuming adequate calories - While nutrition is important for overall health, it is not specifically related to the management of acute bronchitis. D: Encouraging a semi-Fowler’s position - While this position can help with breathing, it is not the most important aspect in the teaching plan for acute bronchitis.
Question 3 of 9
A woman with pelvic inflammatory disease complains of lower abdominal pain. Which action should the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct action is to administer antibiotics as ordered first because pelvic inflammatory disease is caused by an infection, usually from sexually transmitted organisms. Administering antibiotics promptly is crucial to prevent further complications and treat the underlying infection. This helps to alleviate the source of the pain. Rating pain severity, administering analgesics, and patient education are important but should come after addressing the infection to prevent worsening of the condition.
Question 4 of 9
Laboratory studies indicate a client’s blood pressure level is 185mg/dl. Two hours have passed since the client ate breakfast. Which test would yield the most occlusive diagnostic information about the client’s glucose utilization?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: A 6-hour glucose tolerance test. This test involves measuring blood glucose levels at specific intervals after consuming a glucose solution, providing a comprehensive assessment of glucose utilization over time. This test is particularly useful in evaluating how the body processes glucose after a meal and can help diagnose conditions such as diabetes. A: A fasting blood glucose test would not provide a comprehensive picture of glucose utilization over time since it only measures glucose levels in a fasted state. B: A test of serum glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) reflects average blood glucose levels over the past 2-3 months but does not directly assess glucose utilization after a meal. D: A test for urine ketones is used to detect ketones in the urine, which can indicate diabetic ketoacidosis but does not directly measure glucose utilization.
Question 5 of 9
Which client has the highest risk of ovarian cancer?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 45-year old woman who has never been pregnant. The risk of ovarian cancer increases with age and nulliparity (never having been pregnant) is a significant risk factor. The older a woman gets without having been pregnant, the higher her risk of developing ovarian cancer. The other choices do not have as high of a risk factor for ovarian cancer. Choice A, a 30-year old woman taking contraceptives, actually reduces the risk of ovarian cancer. Choice C, a 40-year old woman with three children, and choice D, a 36-year old woman who had her first child at age 22, both have lower risk factors compared to choice B.
Question 6 of 9
Which immunoglobulin is specific to an allergic response?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: IgE. IgE is specific to allergic responses as it binds to mast cells and basophils, triggering the release of histamine and other inflammatory mediators. IgA is more involved in mucosal immunity, IgG is involved in long-term immunity and opsonization, and IgM is the primary antibody in the primary immune response. IgB is not a known immunoglobulin. Therefore, IgE is the specific immunoglobulin associated with allergic responses due to its role in mediating hypersensitivity reactions.
Question 7 of 9
A 45-year-old patient has a long- standing history of allergies to pollen. Which of the following actions indicates that the patient does not understand how to control this disease?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Driving in the car with the windows open exposes the patient to pollen, worsening allergies. Staying indoors on dry, windy days (A) reduces exposure. Refusing to walk outside in spring (B) also minimizes exposure. Working in the garden on sunny days (D) increases pollen exposure. Therefore, choice C is the only action that goes against controlling pollen allergies.
Question 8 of 9
A 78 year old male has been working on his lawn for two days, although the temperature has been above 90 degree F. he has been on thiazide diuretics for hypertension. His lab values are K 3.7 mEq/L, Na 129 mEq/L, Ca 9 mg/dl, and Cl 95 mEq/L. What would be a priority action for this man?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor for fatigue, muscle weakness, restlessness, and flushed skin. The patient is at risk for dehydration due to the combination of high temperature, age, and thiazide diuretic use. Thiazide diuretics can lead to electrolyte imbalances, including hypokalemia, which can cause symptoms such as muscle weakness and fatigue. Monitoring for signs of dehydration and electrolyte imbalances is crucial in this scenario to prevent complications. A: Making sure he drinks 8 glasses of water a day is not the priority as he is already at risk for dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. C: Hyperchloremia is not a common concern in this scenario based on the given lab values. D: Neurologic changes may occur in severe cases of electrolyte imbalances but monitoring for physical symptoms such as fatigue and muscle weakness is more relevant at this stage.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse has given medication instruction to the client receiving phenyton (Dilantin). The nurse determines that the client has an adequate understanding if the client states that:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Good oral hygiene is needed, including brushing and flossing." This is because phenytoin (Dilantin) can cause gingival hyperplasia, a side effect that leads to overgrowth of gum tissue. Good oral hygiene practices, such as regular brushing and flossing, can help prevent or minimize this side effect. Choice A is incorrect because alcohol is contraindicated while taking phenytoin as it can increase the risk of side effects and decrease the effectiveness of the medication. Choice C is incorrect because medication doses should never be self-adjusted without consulting a healthcare provider, as this can lead to ineffective treatment or potential harm. Choice D is incorrect because the timing of the morning dose in relation to drawing a serum drug level is not relevant to the client's understanding of medication instructions and does not address the specific side effect of gingival hyperplasia associated with phenytoin.