ATI RN
Nursing Process Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse is preparing to conduct a health history for a client who is confined to bed. How should the nurse position herself?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Sitting at a 45-degree angle to the bed. This position allows the nurse to have a clear view of the client and maintain good communication. Sitting at a 45-degree angle enables the nurse to observe the client's facial expressions, body language, and interact effectively. Standing at the end of the bed (A) limits the nurse's view and communication. Standing at the side of the bed (B) may obstruct the nurse-client interaction. Sitting at least six feet away (C) creates unnecessary distance and hinders effective communication.
Question 2 of 9
A 46 y.o. woman is admitted to the rehabilitation unit with left-sided hemiparesis resulting from a subarachnoid hemorrhage. She is not oriented to her surroundings or situation, but she does recognize her family. On admission, she tells her nurse that she can walk to the bathroom without assistance. Which of the ff. responses by the nurse is best?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ask her to demonstrate her ability to ambulate. This response is best because it allows the nurse to assess the patient's actual ability to walk safely to the bathroom. By observing her, the nurse can ensure her safety and prevent potential falls. This approach also respects the patient's autonomy while prioritizing her safety. Incorrect responses: A: Allowing her to ambulate unassisted solely for positive self-esteem overlooks the importance of assessing her actual capability and ensuring safety. C: Explaining that assistance will always be available may not address the immediate need for assessment and safety. D: Asking another staff member to assist without assessing the patient's ability herself does not allow the nurse to directly evaluate the patient's safety and independence.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the ff instructions should be given to the clients family if a client with impaired swallowing has to take solid medication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because crushing or breaking tablets can alter the medication's effectiveness or cause harm. Step 1: Consult a physician or pharmacist ensures safety and effectiveness. Step 2: This step helps in determining if the medication can be safely altered for easier swallowing. Step 3: Using liquid form (B) may not always be an option. Mixing with food (A) can affect absorption. ROM exercises (D) are unrelated to medication administration.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse provides care for a client with deep partial-thickness burns. What could cause a reduced hematocrit (Hct) in this client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Volume overload with hemodilution. In deep partial-thickness burns, there can be fluid shifts leading to volume overload. This excess fluid in the intravascular space can dilute the blood, resulting in a decreased hematocrit (Hct). Reduced Hct indicates lower concentration of red blood cells in the blood. Other choices are incorrect because hypoalbuminemia would lead to hemoconcentration, metabolic acidosis would not directly cause a reduced Hct, and lack of erythropoietin factor would primarily affect erythropoiesis but not directly lead to decreased Hct.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is providing breast cancer education at a community facility. The American Cancer Society recommends that women get with mammograms:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Yearly after age 40. This recommendation aligns with the American Cancer Society guidelines that suggest women should start getting annual mammograms at age 40. This age is important as it is when the risk of breast cancer increases. Yearly screenings help in early detection and better treatment outcomes. The other choices (B, C, D) are incorrect because they do not follow the ACS guidelines. Option B is incorrect as it does not specify an age for starting mammograms. Option C is incorrect as it suggests starting after the first menstrual period, which might be too early. Option D is incorrect as it recommends screenings every 3 years between ages 20 and 40, which is not in line with the ACS recommendation for yearly screenings after age 40.
Question 6 of 9
What discharge teaching is most important to help the patient who has had a splenectomy prevent infection?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Receive vaccines against infection. Following a splenectomy, the patient is at an increased risk of infection due to the absence of the spleen's immune function. Vaccines help boost the body's immunity against specific pathogens, reducing the risk of infections. This is crucial for preventing post-splenectomy infections. Now, let's analyze the other choices: A: Avoid showering for 1 week - There is no evidence to support that avoiding showering would prevent infection after a splenectomy. B: Sleep in a semi-fowler’s position - Positioning does not directly impact infection prevention post-splenectomy. D: Stay on antibiotics for life - Long-term antibiotic use can lead to antibiotic resistance and is not recommended unless specifically indicated for a different reason.
Question 7 of 9
Once admitted to hospital the physician indicates that Mr. Gubatan is a paraplegic. The family asks the nurse what that means. The nurse explains that:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (C): 1. Paraplegia is a condition where both lower extremities are paralyzed. 2. The prefix "para-" means alongside or beside, indicating that both legs are affected. 3. The nurse would explain to the family that Mr. Gubatan has paralysis in his lower extremities only. 4. This aligns with the medical definition of paraplegia. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A. Upper extremities being paralyzed is not indicative of paraplegia, as paraplegia specifically refers to lower extremity paralysis. B. Both lower and upper extremities being paralyzed is suggestive of quadriplegia, not paraplegia. D. One side of the body being paralyzed describes hemiplegia, not paraplegia.
Question 8 of 9
At the present time, the best treatment for cancer is complete __________ before metastasis occurs:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Surgical removal. Surgical removal of the cancerous tumor is the best treatment before metastasis because it physically removes the cancer cells. Chemotherapy and radiation are used to treat cancer after it has spread, not as the primary treatment. Choice D is incorrect because not all types of cancer can be effectively treated with all three options.
Question 9 of 9
Patients with Guillain-Barre Syndrome should be closely monitored. Which of the ff. parameters is most important to be checked regularly for acute complications?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: ABG. Monitoring ABG in Guillain-Barre Syndrome patients is crucial as they are at risk for respiratory complications like respiratory failure due to muscle weakness. ABG provides information on oxygenation, ventilation, and acid-base balance. Regular monitoring helps detect early signs of respiratory distress and guide appropriate interventions. A: BUN and creatinine are important for assessing renal function, but they do not directly relate to acute complications in Guillain-Barre Syndrome. B: Hgb and Hct are markers for anemia, which is not a common acute complication in Guillain-Barre Syndrome. D: Serum potassium levels are important, but ABG monitoring takes precedence in patients with Guillain-Barre Syndrome due to the risk of respiratory issues.