ATI RN
ATI Capstone Pharmacology Assessment 1 Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer nitroglycerin ointment to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action is to apply the nitroglycerin ointment to a hairless area of the client's chest, back, or upper arms. This allows for better absorption of the medication. Choice B is incorrect because rubbing the ointment gently into the skin may be appropriate, but the primary action is to ensure application on a hairless area. Choice C is incorrect as covering the ointment with a transparent dressing is not a standard practice for nitroglycerin ointment administration. Choice D is incorrect because massaging the ointment into the skin is not recommended, as it can alter absorption rates.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client receiving IV vancomycin. The nurse notes flushing of the client's neck and chest. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client receiving IV vancomycin shows flushing of the neck and chest is to slow the infusion rate. Flushing is a common sign of Red Man Syndrome, which is associated with rapid infusions of vancomycin. Slowing down the infusion rate can help prevent further flushing and the development of Red Man Syndrome. Stopping the infusion (Choice A) may be too drastic if the symptoms are mild and can be managed by slowing the rate. Documenting the findings as a harmless reaction (Choice B) is incorrect because flushing should be addressed promptly to prevent complications. Administering diphenhydramine (Choice D) is not the initial or best intervention for flushing associated with vancomycin; slowing the infusion rate is the priority.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has been prescribed amoxicillin. Which of the following client history findings requires the nurse to clarify the medication prescription?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clients with a history of asthma should avoid amoxicillin due to potential hypersensitivity reactions. Amoxicillin can trigger asthma exacerbations in some individuals. Hypertension (choice A), peptic ulcer disease (choice B), and gastroesophageal reflux disease (choice D) are not contraindications for amoxicillin use, so they do not require the nurse to clarify the medication prescription in this case.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is providing client education regarding lithium therapy. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid excessive intake of caffeinated beverages as they can interfere with lithium levels. Option A is incorrect as lithium is usually recommended to be taken on an empty stomach. Option C is not directly related to lithium therapy. Option D is not a typical instruction for lithium therapy.
Question 5 of 5
A client is receiving magnesium sulfate for the management of preeclampsia. Which of the following client assessments should the nurse monitor to prevent complications of therapy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is deep tendon reflexes. Monitoring deep tendon reflexes is crucial to assess for magnesium toxicity during therapy for preeclampsia. Magnesium sulfate can lead to neuromuscular blockade, reflected by decreased or absent deep tendon reflexes. Assessing bowel sounds (choice A) is important for gastrointestinal function but is not directly related to magnesium sulfate therapy. Oxygen saturation (choice C) is vital for respiratory status but is not specifically linked to magnesium sulfate administration. Fluid balance (choice D) is essential but does not directly correlate with monitoring for complications of magnesium sulfate therapy in the context of preeclampsia.