A nurse is preparing to administer medications to a patient and discovers a discrepancy between the medication order and the patient's medication record. What is the nurse's priority action?

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Adult Health Nursing First Chapter Quizlet Questions

Question 1 of 9

A nurse is preparing to administer medications to a patient and discovers a discrepancy between the medication order and the patient's medication record. What is the nurse's priority action?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: When a nurse discovers a discrepancy between the medication order and the patient's medication record, the priority action is to verify the medication order with the prescriber to ensure accuracy and patient safety. Administering the medication without clarification can put the patient at risk. Documenting the discrepancy and informing the charge nurse is important, but it should not delay verifying the order with the prescriber. Contacting the pharmacy for clarification may be necessary in some cases, but the immediate action should be to confirm the prescription with the prescriber to prevent errors and ensure the patient receives the correct medication.

Question 2 of 9

When a patient is diagnosed to have pneumonia, the breath sounds detected by the nurse on auscultation of the affected area would be ______.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: When a patient is diagnosed with pneumonia, the breath sounds detected by the nurse on auscultation of the affected area would typically include fine crackles. Fine crackles are discontinuous, high-pitched crackling or rattling sounds heard during inspiration that indicate the presence of fluid in the small airways or alveoli. These crackles are caused by the movement of secretions or exudate within the bronchioles or alveoli, which is a common characteristic of pneumonia. Wheezing sounds are usually associated with conditions such as asthma, bronchitis, or COPD and are caused by narrowed airways. Stridor is a high-pitched, crowing sound that typically indicates an obstruction in the upper airway and is often heard in cases of laryngeal inflammation or foreign body aspiration. Deep and low-pitched breath sounds are more characteristic of conditions like chronic bronchitis.

Question 3 of 9

A patient presents with sudden-onset unilateral headache, along with ipsilateral ptosis, miosis, and anhidrosis. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The presentation described in the question – sudden-onset unilateral headache along with ipsilateral ptosis, miosis, and anhidrosis – is characteristic of Horner syndrome. Horner syndrome is caused by disruption of the sympathetic nerve pathway and can occur in trigeminal neuralgia. Trigeminal neuralgia is a painful condition affecting the trigeminal nerve commonly characterized by sudden and severe facial pain that can be triggered by various stimuli. The involvement of the sympathetic pathway in trigeminal neuralgia can lead to Horner syndrome symptoms such as ptosis (drooping eyelid), miosis (constricted pupil), and anhidrosis (lack of sweating) on the affected side of the face. Cluster headaches usually involve severe unilateral pain around the eye, but they do not typically present with Horner syndrome symptoms. Migraine and tension-type headaches also do not typically present with Horner syndrome symptoms.

Question 4 of 9

Nurse Carmi finally decided to make an in depth study of ONLY ONE SUBJECT of domestic violence. What design will she use?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: A descriptive case study design is the most suitable approach when Nurse Carmi decides to make an in-depth study of only one subject of domestic violence. This design involves a comprehensive and detailed exploration of a single individual or a specific situation, allowing for an in-depth analysis of various aspects related to the subject. Since Nurse Carmi is focusing on studying only one subject, a case study design will enable her to gather detailed information, delve deep into the complexities of the individual's experiences, behaviors, and outcomes related to domestic violence. This design will provide a rich and holistic understanding of the single case being studied, offering valuable insights and potential implications for practice and intervention strategies.

Question 5 of 9

The type of epidemiologic study that is used to describe a group of persons enrolled in a study who share some characteristic of interest and who are followed over a period of time to observe some health outcome is a/an:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Cohort studies are types of epidemiological studies that involve a group of individuals who share a common characteristic or experience and are followed over time to observe the development of a particular health outcome. This type of study is useful in determining the incidence of a disease, identifying risk factors, and studying the natural history of a disease. Cohort studies allow researchers to investigate the relationship between exposure and outcome by following participants forward in time. It helps in establishing causality and is particularly useful for studying rare exposures or outcomes. In contrast, cross-sectional studies involve collecting data from a population at a single point in time, experimental studies involve interventions and control groups, and case-control studies involve comparing individuals with a particular health outcome (cases) to those without the outcome (controls) retrospectively.

Question 6 of 9

Which of the following dental conditions is characterized by the involuntary grinding or clenching of teeth, often leading to tooth wear, muscle pain, and temporomandibular joint dysfunction?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Bruxism is the dental condition characterized by the involuntary grinding or clenching of teeth, often occurring during sleep. This habitual behavior can lead to tooth wear, muscle pain, headaches, and temporomandibular joint dysfunction. Dental caries (choice A) refers to tooth decay, while attrition (choice B) specifically refers to the wearing down of teeth due to forces like chewing. Periodontitis (choice D) is a condition involving inflammation and infection of the gums and supporting structures of the teeth. Among the choices provided, bruxism is the most fitting description for the condition characterized by tooth grinding and clenching.

Question 7 of 9

A patient presents with sudden-onset, severe eye pain, headache, nausea, and vomiting. On examination, the affected eye appears red, with a steamy cornea and mid-dilated, non-reactive pupil. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The presentation described is characteristic of acute angle-closure glaucoma. This condition typically presents with sudden-onset severe eye pain, headache, nausea, and vomiting. On examination, the affected eye may appear red due to conjunctival injection, and there may be a steamy cornea due to corneal edema. The mid-dilated, non-reactive pupil is a key finding in angle-closure glaucoma, as the iris bombe (forward movement of the peripheral iris) blocks the drainage angle, leading to increased intraocular pressure. If left untreated, acute angle-closure glaucoma can result in irreversible vision loss. Immediate intervention is crucial to lower the intraocular pressure and prevent further damage to the optic nerve. Prompt referral to an ophthalmologist for definitive treatment is necessary in cases of suspected acute angle-closure glaucoma.

Question 8 of 9

A postpartum client presents with persistent, severe headache, visual disturbances, and epigastric pain. Which nursing action is most appropriate?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The presentation of persistent, severe headache, visual disturbances, and epigastric pain in a postpartum client could indicate the development of postpartum preeclampsia or eclampsia, which are serious conditions that require immediate medical attention. Prompt notification of the healthcare provider is essential to ensure timely assessment, diagnosis, and treatment to prevent potential complications for both the mother and baby. Encouraging rest, providing acetaminophen, or offering a massage are not appropriate interventions for addressing these symptoms, as they do not address the underlying cause and urgency of the situation.

Question 9 of 9

Which of the following is the PRIMARY goal of collaboration

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The primary goal of collaboration is to accomplish shared goals and objectives. When individuals work together towards a common purpose, they can combine their different skills, perspectives, and resources to achieve outcomes that could not be accomplished by working alone. Collaborating enables team members to leverage each other's strengths and expertise, leading to more innovative and effective solutions. While camaraderie and efficiency are important aspects of collaboration, the ultimate aim is to successfully achieve the desired goals.

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