ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing First Chapter Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse is preparing to administer medications to a patient and discovers a discrepancy between the medication order and the patient's medication record. What is the nurse's priority action?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When a nurse discovers a discrepancy between the medication order and the patient's medication record, the priority action is to verify the medication order with the prescriber to ensure accuracy and patient safety. Administering the medication without clarification can put the patient at risk. Documenting the discrepancy and informing the charge nurse is important, but it should not delay verifying the order with the prescriber. Contacting the pharmacy for clarification may be necessary in some cases, but the immediate action should be to confirm the prescription with the prescriber to prevent errors and ensure the patient receives the correct medication.
Question 2 of 9
Which nursing intervention constitutes false imprisonment?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: False imprisonment occurs when a client is physically restrained or confined without legal justification. In this scenario, the nurse restraining the confused and combative client without a physician's order constitutes false imprisonment. Restraints should only be used when necessary to ensure the safety of the client or others, and a physician's order is required to authorize their use. In this case, the nurse acted without proper authorization, making it a violation of the client's rights and false imprisonment. It is essential to follow proper protocols and obtain necessary orders before restraining a client.
Question 3 of 9
Patient was visited by the anesthesiologist and explained the anesthesia for his surgery. Which of the following type of anesthesia would you expect to be ordered?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When the anesthesiologist visits a patient to explain the anesthesia for surgery, the most likely type of anesthesia to be ordered in this scenario would be general anesthesia. General anesthesia is a state of controlled unconsciousness where the patient is completely unaware and unresponsive during the procedure. This type of anesthesia is typically used for surgeries that are more complex, lengthy, or invasive, requiring the patient to be completely still and asleep throughout the operation.
Question 4 of 9
A patient presents with sudden-onset unilateral headache, along with ipsilateral ptosis, miosis, and anhidrosis. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The presentation described in the question – sudden-onset unilateral headache along with ipsilateral ptosis, miosis, and anhidrosis – is characteristic of Horner syndrome. Horner syndrome is caused by disruption of the sympathetic nerve pathway and can occur in trigeminal neuralgia. Trigeminal neuralgia is a painful condition affecting the trigeminal nerve commonly characterized by sudden and severe facial pain that can be triggered by various stimuli. The involvement of the sympathetic pathway in trigeminal neuralgia can lead to Horner syndrome symptoms such as ptosis (drooping eyelid), miosis (constricted pupil), and anhidrosis (lack of sweating) on the affected side of the face. Cluster headaches usually involve severe unilateral pain around the eye, but they do not typically present with Horner syndrome symptoms. Migraine and tension-type headaches also do not typically present with Horner syndrome symptoms.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following laboratory findings is most consistent with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is a severe condition characterized by widespread inflammation in the lungs leading to increased pulmonary vascular permeability, non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema, and respiratory failure. In ARDS, the alveolar-capillary barrier is disrupted, resulting in fluid accumulation in the alveoli and impaired gas exchange.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following conditions is characterized by the presence of high-risk human papillomavirus (HPV) types and is associated with an increased risk of cervical cancer?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) is a premalignant condition of the cervix that is characterized by the presence of high-risk human papillomavirus (HPV) types. HPV infection is a major risk factor for the development of cervical cancer. CIN is typically detected on routine cervical screening tests such as Pap smears or HPV testing. If left untreated, CIN can progress to invasive cervical cancer. Therefore, the presence of high-risk HPV types in CIN lesions indicates an increased risk of developing cervical cancer.
Question 7 of 9
What must be stressed to all participants attending a health fair?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Stressing to all participants attending a health fair that a screening program is not a substitute for ongoing health supervision from a healthcare provider is crucial for several reasons. Health fairs are intended to provide a snapshot of an individual's health at a specific point in time and are not comprehensive assessments. Participants need to understand that these screenings are not a replacement for regular check-ups with their healthcare provider, who can provide continued monitoring, follow-up care, and more in-depth evaluations if necessary. It's important for participants to recognize that the results from a health fair screening are just one piece of their overall health picture and that ongoing care from a healthcare provider is essential for maintaining their well-being.
Question 8 of 9
Which intervention should the nurse use to promote rest?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Developing a routine with the patient to balance her studies and rest needs is the most appropriate intervention to promote rest. This approach considers the patient's responsibilities and can help her organize her time effectively to ensure she gets adequate rest while managing her studies. It acknowledges the importance of rest without completely disregarding the patient's other commitments, ultimately fostering a balanced approach to self-care. This intervention is patient-centered and collaborative, empowering the patient to take an active role in prioritizing rest alongside her educational responsibilities.
Question 9 of 9
Which among the members of the multidisciplinary team that the nurse BEST to collaborate with when the patient can benefit the use of leg prosthesis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A physical therapist would be the best member of the multidisciplinary team to collaborate with when a patient can benefit from using a leg prosthesis. Physical therapists specialize in assessing and treating movement disorders, including those related to amputation and prosthetic use. They can help the patient improve their mobility, strength, balance, and overall functional abilities with the prosthesis. Physical therapists can provide training on how to use the prosthesis effectively, reduce the risk of falls, and optimize the patient's independence and quality of life. Collaborating with a physical therapist ensures that the patient receives comprehensive care tailored to their specific needs and goals related to using a leg prosthesis.