ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin 0.25 mg PO daily. The amount available is digoxin 0.125 mg tablets. How many tablets should the nurse administer?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 2. To achieve the prescribed dose of 0.25 mg of digoxin, the nurse should administer two 0.125 mg tablets. This calculation ensures that the patient receives the correct amount of medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate dosage needed based on the available tablets and prescribed dose.
Question 2 of 9
A client just had a flexible bronchoscopy. Which of the following nursing actions is appropriate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: After a flexible bronchoscopy, it is essential to withhold food and liquids until the client's gag reflex returns. This precaution helps prevent aspiration, as the gag reflex protects the airway from foreign material. Irrigating the client's throat every 4 hours (Choice A) is unnecessary and may increase the risk of aspiration. Suctioning the client's oropharynx frequently (Choice C) can cause trauma and is not indicated unless there is a specific medical reason for it. Having the client refrain from talking for 24 hours (Choice D) is not necessary after a flexible bronchoscopy.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient postoperatively after a thyroidectomy. Which of the following findings should be reported immediately?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Tingling around the mouth should be reported immediately as it may indicate hypocalcemia, a serious complication resulting from accidental removal or damage to the parathyroid glands during thyroidectomy. Hoarseness and difficulty swallowing are common post-thyroidectomy symptoms related to the surgery itself and the manipulation of the vocal cords and nearby structures. Numbness in the fingers is not typically associated with immediate serious complications of a thyroidectomy.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is preparing to administer enoxaparin to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct action when administering enoxaparin is not to expel the air bubble in the prefilled syringe. Expelling the air bubble may lead to the loss of medication and result in an incomplete dose. Aspirating for a blood return (Choice A) is not necessary for subcutaneous injections like enoxaparin. Inserting the needle at a 45-degree angle (Choice B) is not specific to administering enoxaparin. Administering the medication 2.54 cm (1 in) from the umbilicus (Choice C) is not a standard guideline for enoxaparin administration.
Question 5 of 9
How should a healthcare provider respond to a patient who is exhibiting signs of acute myocardial infarction (AMI)?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When a patient is exhibiting signs of acute myocardial infarction (AMI), the priority action is to call for emergency assistance immediately. This ensures that the patient receives prompt and appropriate care, including interventions such as administering oxygen, nitroglycerin, and monitoring cardiac rhythm. Administering nitroglycerin should only be done if prescribed by a healthcare provider after assessment and confirmation of AMI. Monitoring the patient's cardiac rhythm is important but not the initial action needed in this critical situation. Administering oxygen and preparing for an ECG are important interventions but should follow the immediate step of calling for emergency assistance.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is teaching a female client who is experiencing alcohol withdrawal about chlordiazepoxide. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 7 of 9
A client with hypertension is receiving teaching from a healthcare provider. Which statement demonstrates comprehension of the instruction?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer because taking hypertension medication at the same time each day ensures its effectiveness in managing blood pressure. Consistency in medication intake is crucial to control hypertension. Option A focuses on dietary management, which is essential but not directly related to medication adherence. Option B is incorrect as stopping hypertension medication abruptly can lead to complications. Option D addresses the importance of exercise, which is beneficial for hypertension but not directly related to medication adherence.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse in a clinic is caring for a client who has a urinary tract infection (UTI). Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse verify with a provider?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Oxybutynin. Oxybutynin can worsen urinary retention, so the nurse should verify this prescription with the provider. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Choice A) is a common antibiotic used to treat UTIs and does not require verification. Hyoscyamine (Choice B) is an anticholinergic medication used for bladder spasms and does not typically worsen UTI symptoms. Phenazopyridine (Choice D) is a urinary analgesic that helps relieve pain, burning, and discomfort caused by a UTI, which may not necessarily require verification in this scenario.
Question 9 of 9
A healthcare professional is giving a change-of-shift report about a client admitted earlier that day with pneumonia. Which of the following pieces of information is the priority for the healthcare professional to provide?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Breath sounds.' When providing a change-of-shift report for a client with pneumonia, the priority information to communicate is the assessment of breath sounds. Monitoring breath sounds is crucial in assessing respiratory status and the effectiveness of treatments in pneumonia. Option A, recent chest x-ray results, may be important but does not provide real-time information on the client's current status. Option B, medication history, is relevant but not as immediate as assessing breath sounds. Option D, lab results, can provide valuable information but may not be as urgent as monitoring the client's respiratory status through breath sounds.