ATI RN
foundation of nursing questions and answers Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse is preparing a bowel training programfor a patient. Which actions will the nurse take? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Recording times when the patient is incontinent is crucial in identifying patterns and establishing a structured bowel training program. This data helps in determining the optimal timing for toileting. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is not specific to bowel training and may not address the patient's individual needs. Choice C is not a recommended posture for effective bowel elimination. Choice D, while important for overall health, is not directly related to bowel training.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is designing a form for lesbian, gay,bisexual, and transgender (LGBT) patients. Which design should the nurse use?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Use parents rather than guardian. This is the most inclusive and respectful choice for LGBT patients as it acknowledges different family structures. LGBT individuals may have non-traditional family dynamics, so using "parents" instead of "guardian" is more appropriate. Option A is incorrect because not all LGBT individuals are in partnerships. Option B is incorrect as it assumes traditional gender roles. Option D is incorrect as not all LGBT individuals may identify with the terms "wife" or "husband."
Question 3 of 9
A nurse has provided care to a patient. Whichentry should the nurse document in the patient’s record?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it provides specific, objective information about the patient's left knee incision, including its size and absence of concerning signs. This entry is relevant, concise, and focuses on a specific aspect of the patient's condition, aiding in continuity of care and treatment planning. Choice A is vague and lacks detail, making it insufficient for accurate patient care documentation. Choice B focuses on the patient's subjective feelings and does not provide objective assessment data. Choice D is judgmental and includes unnecessary information about the patient's behavior and family presence, which is not directly related to the patient's condition.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient who is to begin receiving external radiation for a malignant tumor of the neck. While providing patient education, what potential adverse effects should the nurse discuss with the patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Impaired nutritional status. Radiation therapy to the neck can lead to mucositis, dysphagia, and taste changes, which can impair the patient's ability to eat and maintain adequate nutrition. This can lead to weight loss, weakness, and delayed wound healing. Discussing this potential adverse effect with the patient is crucial for proactive management. Choice B: Cognitive changes, and Choice C: Diarrhea are less likely to be direct adverse effects of radiation therapy to the neck. Cognitive changes are more commonly associated with brain radiation, while diarrhea is a more common side effect of abdominal radiation. Choice D: Alopecia is a side effect of chemotherapy, not radiation therapy. Radiation therapy does not typically cause hair loss unless it is in the treatment field. Therefore, discussing alopecia with the patient receiving radiation for a malignant neck tumor is not a priority.
Question 5 of 9
A school nurse is caring for a child who appears to be having an allergic response. What should be the initial action of the school nurse?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct initial action for the school nurse is to assess for signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis (Choice A). This is crucial as anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that can be life-threatening and requires immediate intervention. Assessing for anaphylaxis symptoms such as difficulty breathing, swelling of the face or throat, and a rapid pulse helps the nurse quickly identify the severity of the situation. Administering OTC antihistamines (Choice C) or epinephrine (Choice D) should only be done after confirming the presence of anaphylaxis. Assessing for erythema and urticaria (Choice B) is important but not as immediate as assessing for signs of anaphylaxis in this scenario.
Question 6 of 9
Fraternal twins are delivered by your Rh-negative patient. Twin A is Rh-positive and twin B is Rh-negative. Prior to administering Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM), the nurse should determine the results of the
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: indirect Coombs test of the mother. This test is crucial to determine if the mother has developed antibodies against the Rh-positive blood of twin A, which could lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn in future pregnancies. A direct Coombs test of twin A or twin B is not relevant in this scenario as it does not provide information about the mother's antibody status. Transcutaneous bilirubin levels are used to monitor jaundice in newborns and not related to Rh incompatibility. In summary, the indirect Coombs test of the mother is the most relevant test to assess the risk of hemolytic disease in future pregnancies.
Question 7 of 9
Which finding on a prenatal visit at 10 weeks might suggest a hydatidiform mole?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fundal height measurement of 18 cm. This finding suggests a hydatidiform mole because it is larger than expected for a 10-week pregnancy due to excessive trophoblastic proliferation. A: Blood pressure is within normal range. B: Nausea is common in early pregnancy and not specific to a mole. D: History of bright red spotting is more indicative of a miscarriage or other complications, not necessarily a mole.
Question 8 of 9
A patient with multiple food and environmental allergies tells the nurse that he is frustrated and angry about having to be so watchful all the time and wonders if it is really worth it. What would be the nurses best response?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it shows empathy and offers the patient an opportunity to express their feelings. By acknowledging the patient's frustration and anger, the nurse validates their emotions and creates a safe space for communication. This response promotes trust and understanding, which are crucial in building a therapeutic relationship. Choice B is incorrect because it immediately jumps to teaching coping strategies without addressing the patient's emotional state. Choice C is incorrect as it generalizes the patient's feelings without directly engaging with their specific concerns. Choice D is incorrect as it sounds dismissive and may make the patient feel judged or misunderstood. These responses lack the empathetic approach needed to effectively support the patient in this situation.
Question 9 of 9
During the admission assessment of an HIV-positive patient whose CD4+ count has recently fallen, the nurse carefully assesses for signs and symptoms related to opportunistic infections. What is the most common life-threatening infection?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Pneumocystis pneumonia. This is the most common life-threatening infection in HIV-positive patients with low CD4+ counts. Pneumocystis pneumonia is caused by the opportunistic pathogen Pneumocystis jirovecii, which can lead to severe respiratory distress and mortality in immunocompromised individuals. The other choices, A: Salmonella infection, B: Mycobacterium tuberculosis, and C: Clostridium difficile, can also cause infections in HIV-positive patients, but they are not as commonly associated with life-threatening complications in this population compared to Pneumocystis pneumonia. It is crucial for the nurse to prioritize assessment for signs and symptoms of Pneumocystis pneumonia in this patient to promptly intervene and prevent further complications.