ATI RN
Hematological System Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is planning the care of a patient who has been admitted to the medical unit with a diagnosis of multiple myeloma. In the patient's care plan, the nurse has identified a diagnosis of Risk for Injury. What pathophysiologic effect of multiple myeloma most contributes to this risk?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Decreased bone density. Multiple myeloma is a cancer of plasma cells in bone marrow that can lead to bone destruction and decreased bone density, increasing the risk of fractures and falls. Labyrinthitis (A) is an inner ear disorder unrelated to multiple myeloma. Left ventricular hypertrophy (B) is a cardiac condition not directly associated with the pathophysiology of multiple myeloma. Hypercoagulation (D) is not a primary risk factor for injury in multiple myeloma compared to decreased bone density.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse practitioner is assessing a patient who has a fever, malaise, and a white blood cell count that is elevated. Which of the following principles should guide the nurse's management of the patient's care?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Infection is the most likely cause of the patient's change in health status. Rationale: 1. Fever, malaise, and elevated white blood cell count are classic signs of infection. 2. Infections are common causes of elevated white blood cell count. 3. Other choices (A, C, D) focus on specific conditions (lymphoma, leukemia, multiple myeloma) that are less likely in this scenario. 4. It is important to consider the most common and likely cause first, which is infection in this case.
Question 3 of 5
A patient has been found to have an indolent neoplasm. The nurse should recognize what implication of this condition?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because an indolent neoplasm typically grows slowly and is less likely to metastasize quickly, reducing the risk of malignancy. Choice B and C are incorrect as they refer to specific types of leukemia, not necessarily related to indolent neoplasms. Choice D is incorrect as hemophilia is a genetic disorder unrelated to neoplasms. In summary, the key implication of an indolent neoplasm is a lower risk of malignancy compared to aggressive neoplasms.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who has been taking warfarin and is experiencing rectal bleeding. Which of the following drugs should the nurse expect to administer to the client?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Vitamin K. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that inhibits Vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, leading to bleeding. Administering Vitamin K helps replenish these factors, aiding in clot formation and stopping the bleeding. Filgrastim (A) is a medication used to stimulate white blood cell production, unrelated to clotting. Deferoxamine (B) is a chelating agent used for iron toxicity, not for clotting issues. Protamine (C) is used to reverse the effects of heparin, not warfarin.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse should assess a client who has a megaloblastic anemia for indications of which of the following vitamin deficiencies?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Megaloblastic anemia is typically caused by a deficiency in Vitamin B12. Step 2: Vitamin B12 is essential for the production of red blood cells and DNA synthesis. Step 3: Symptoms of Vitamin B12 deficiency include anemia, fatigue, weakness, and neurological issues. Step 4: Assessing for indications of Vitamin B12 deficiency is crucial for managing megaloblastic anemia. Summary: - Choice A (Vitamin C) is incorrect as it is not directly associated with megaloblastic anemia. - Choice B (Vitamin K) is incorrect as it is primarily involved in blood clotting, not red blood cell synthesis. - Choice D (Vitamin D) is incorrect as it is related to bone health and not directly linked to megaloblastic anemia.