ATI RN
foundation of nursing questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse is planning preoperative teaching for a patient with hearing loss due to otosclerosis. The patient is scheduled for a stapedectomy with insertion of a prosthesis. What information is most crucial to include in the patients preoperative teaching?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: The patient is likely to experience resolution of conductive hearing loss after the procedure. This information is crucial to include in the preoperative teaching because it directly addresses the patient's expected outcome, providing reassurance and setting appropriate expectations. Stapedectomy with prosthesis insertion is a well-established treatment for otosclerosis-related conductive hearing loss. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they either provide misleading information (A, D) or are not directly relevant to the procedure or the patient's immediate postoperative experience (C). It is important to focus on accurate and relevant information to prepare the patient effectively for the upcoming surgery and its expected outcomes.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is caring for an 8-year-old patient whois embarrassed about urinating in bed at night. Which intervention should the nurse suggest to reduce the frequency of this occurrence?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: “Drink your nightly glass of milk earlier in the evening.” By suggesting the patient to drink milk earlier, it allows more time for the body to process and excrete the fluids before bedtime, reducing the likelihood of bedwetting. This intervention targets the root cause of the issue by addressing the timing of fluid intake. Explanation for why the other choices are incorrect: A: “Set your alarm clock to wake you every 2 hours, so you can get up to void.” This intervention disrupts the patient's sleep pattern and may not address the underlying cause of bedwetting. B: “Line your bedding with plastic sheets to protect your mattress.” This intervention focuses on managing the consequences of bedwetting rather than preventing it. D: “Empty your bladder completely before going to bed.” While important, this suggestion alone may not be sufficient to address the timing of fluid intake, which is crucial in reducing bedwetting frequency.
Question 3 of 9
A 37-year-old man is brought to the clinic by his wife because he is experiencing loss of motor function and sensation. The physician suspects the patient has a spinal cord tumor and hospitalizes him for diagnostic testing. In light of the need to diagnose spinal cord compression from a tumor, the nurse will most likely prepare the patient for what test?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: MRI. MRI is the most appropriate test for diagnosing spinal cord compression from a tumor as it provides detailed images of soft tissues, including the spinal cord and surrounding structures. It can accurately identify the location, size, and extent of the tumor. Anterior-posterior x-ray (A) is not as detailed and may not clearly show soft tissue abnormalities. Ultrasound (B) is not typically used for imaging the spinal cord and may not provide sufficient information. Lumbar puncture (C) is used to collect cerebrospinal fluid and is not helpful for diagnosing spinal cord compression from a tumor.
Question 4 of 9
A patient is being discharged home after a hysterectomy. When providing discharge education for this patient, the nurse has cautioned the patient against sitting for long periods. This advice addresses the patients risk of what surgical complication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Venous thromboembolism. After a hysterectomy, patients are at increased risk for developing blood clots due to decreased mobility and pressure on the veins. Sitting for long periods can further increase this risk by slowing blood flow. Pudendal nerve damage (A) is not a common complication of hysterectomy. Fatigue (B) is a common postoperative symptom but not directly related to sitting for long periods. Hemorrhage (D) is a potential complication of hysterectomy but is not specifically related to sitting for long periods.
Question 5 of 9
A patient has been brought to the emergency department by EMS after being found unresponsive. Rapid assessment reveals anaphylaxis as a potential cause of the patients condition. The care team should attempt to assess for what potential causes of anaphylaxis? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Foods. Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that can be triggered by foods, medications, insect stings, and other allergens. In this scenario, assessing for potential food allergies is crucial as food is one of the most common triggers for anaphylaxis. Foods like nuts, shellfish, and eggs are common culprits. Medications and insect stings (choices B and C) are also important triggers to consider in the assessment. Autoimmunity (choice D) is not a direct cause of anaphylaxis, as it involves the immune system attacking the body's own tissues rather than reacting to external allergens. Environmental pollutants (choice E) may trigger respiratory symptoms but are not typically associated with anaphylaxis.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is describing some of the major characteristics of cancer to a patient who has recently received a diagnosis of malignant melanoma. When differentiating between benign and malignant cancer cells, the nurse should explain differences in which of the following aspects? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rate of growth. Malignant cancer cells grow and divide rapidly compared to benign cells. Benign cells are usually slow-growing and have a well-defined border, while malignant cells grow uncontrollably and invade surrounding tissues. The other choices are incorrect because: B: Ability to cause death - Both benign and malignant cells have the potential to cause harm, but the key difference lies in their growth rate and invasiveness. C: Size of cells - The size of cells does not necessarily differentiate between benign and malignant cells. D: Cell contents - While malignant cells may have abnormal cell contents, this is not a defining characteristic when differentiating between benign and malignant cells. E: Ability to spread - While the ability to spread is a key characteristic of malignant cells, the primary differentiating factor in this question is the rate of growth.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is addressing the incidence and prevalence of HIV infection among older adults. What principle should guide the nurses choice of educational interventions?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it addresses the key issue of perception of risk among older adults. Many older adults may not perceive themselves as being at risk for HIV infection due to misconceptions or lack of awareness. This principle guides the nurse to tailor educational interventions to address this specific barrier. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the perception of risk among older adults. Older adults' awareness of HIV/AIDS, number of sex partners, or incidence of intravenous drug use are not the primary factors influencing their perception of HIV risk.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient who has been admitted for the treatment of AIDS. In the morning, the patient tells the nurse that he experienced night sweats and recently coughed up some blood. What is the nurses most appropriate action?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Place the patient on respiratory isolation and inform the physician. This is the most appropriate action because the patient is exhibiting symptoms that could be indicative of a potentially infectious respiratory condition, such as tuberculosis or pneumonia. Placing the patient on respiratory isolation helps prevent the spread of infection to others and protects healthcare workers. Informing the physician promptly allows for further evaluation and appropriate treatment. Choice A is incorrect as Kaposi's sarcoma typically presents with skin lesions rather than respiratory symptoms. Choice B is incorrect as reviewing viral load and CD4+ count would not address the immediate concern of respiratory symptoms. Choice D is incorrect as oral suctioning is not the appropriate intervention for night sweats and coughing up blood.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse is caring for a teenage girl who has had an anaphylactic reaction after a bee sting. The nurse is providing patient teaching prior to the patients discharge. In the event of an anaphylactic reaction, the nurse informs the patient that she should self-administer epinephrine in what site?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Thigh. When administering epinephrine during an anaphylactic reaction, the thigh is the recommended site due to its large muscle mass and quick absorption rate. Steps: 1. Remove safety cap. 2. Firmly push the auto-injector against the thigh until it clicks. 3. Hold in place for a few seconds. 4. Seek medical help immediately. Rationale for incorrect choices: A: Forearm - Not recommended due to smaller muscle mass and slower absorption. C: Deltoid muscle - Not preferred as it may not provide as rapid absorption as the thigh. D: Abdomen - Not ideal due to potential fat layers that could affect absorption speed.