Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Test Bank Free Questions

Question 1 of 5

A nurse is planning care for a patient with a nursing diagnosis of Impaired skin integrity. The patient needs many nursing interventions, including a dressing change, several intravenous antibiotics, and a walk. Which factors does the nurse consider when prioritizing interventions? (Select all that apply.)

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because ranking all the patient's nursing diagnoses in order of priority allows the nurse to address the most critical needs first. By prioritizing based on the urgency and potential impact on the patient's health, the nurse can ensure that interventions are carried out effectively. B is incorrect because priorities may need to be adjusted based on the patient's changing condition. C is incorrect as priorities should consider not only physiological but also psychological and sociological factors. D is incorrect because time is an influencing factor, but it should not be the sole consideration when prioritizing interventions.

Question 2 of 5

Which of the following is one of the discharge criteria from ambulatory surgery for patients following surgery?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Understands discharge instructions. This is crucial for patient safety and recovery post-surgery. Understanding discharge instructions ensures patients know how to care for themselves at home, manage medications, recognize warning signs, and follow-up instructions. Choice A is incorrect as patients should not drive after surgery due to potential impairment. Choice B is incorrect as IV narcotics administration timing is not a discharge criterion. Choice C is irrelevant to the patient's readiness for discharge. Understanding discharge instructions is the key factor in ensuring the patient's well-being and recovery after ambulatory surgery.

Question 3 of 5

A patient who is being tested for HIV asks what tests are used. The nurse would correct in stating that the tests used to confirm HIV infection are which of the following?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: ELISA and Western Blot. The rationale is as follows: ELISA (enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay) and Western Blot are specific tests used to confirm HIV infection by detecting antibodies or antigens related to the virus. ELISA is the initial screening test, while Western Blot is the confirmatory test. These tests are highly sensitive and specific for HIV detection. Choice A is incorrect because CD4+ cell count and thymus function are not tests used to confirm HIV infection. They are used to monitor disease progression and immune function in HIV-positive individuals. Choice C is incorrect because B-cell and T-cell count are also not tests used to confirm HIV infection. They are indicators of immune system health but not specific for HIV diagnosis. Choice D is incorrect because while CD4+ and viral load tests are used in monitoring HIV progression, ELISA is the main confirmatory test for HIV diagnosis, and viral load is not typically used for initial

Question 4 of 5

A client, age 42, visits the gynecologist. After examining her, the physician suspects cervical cancer. The nurse reviews the client’s history for risk factors for this disease. Which history finding is a risk factor for cervical cancer?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Human papilloma virus (HPV) infection at age 32. HPV infection is a well-known risk factor for cervical cancer as certain strains of HPV can lead to cellular changes in the cervix that may progress to cancer. Here's the rationale: 1. HPV is a known risk factor: HPV is a sexually transmitted infection that is strongly linked to the development of cervical cancer. 2. Age of infection: The client's history of acquiring HPV at age 32 is significant as long-standing HPV infection increases the risk of cervical cancer. 3. Other choices are not directly linked: Choices A, B, and C are not directly associated with an increased risk of cervical cancer. Age of sexual activity onset, spontaneous abortion, and eclampsia are not established risk factors for cervical cancer.

Question 5 of 5

A nurse is completing an assessment. Which findings will the nurse report as subjective data? (Select all that apply.)

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because subjective data refers to information reported by the patient, such as their feelings, emotions, and perceptions. In this case, the patient describing excitement about discharge is an example of subjective data. The other choices (A, B, D) are objective data because they are observable and measurable by the nurse. Temperature (A) and wound appearance (B) are physical observations, while the patient pacing the floor (D) is a behavior that can be observed. It is important for nurses to differentiate between subjective and objective data to provide accurate assessments and care for their patients.

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