ATI RN
ATI Fluid Electrolyte and Acid-Base Regulation Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse is planning care for a client who is hyperventilating. The clients arterial blood gas values are pH 7.30, PaO2 94 mm Hg, PaCO2 31 mm Hg, and HCO3 26 mEq/L. Which question should the nurse ask when developing this clients plan of care?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "You appear anxious. What is causing your distress?" because hyperventilation can be triggered by emotional distress or anxiety. By addressing the underlying cause of the hyperventilation, the nurse can provide appropriate interventions to help the client manage their anxiety and subsequently reduce the hyperventilation episodes. A: "Do you take any over-the-counter medications?" - This question is not directly related to addressing the client's anxiety or distress, which is the primary concern in hyperventilation. C: "Do you have a history of anxiety attacks?" - While relevant to understanding the client's medical history, this question does not address the immediate cause of hyperventilation in this specific situation. D: "You are breathing fast. Is this causing you to feel light-headed?" - This question focuses on the physical symptoms of hyperventilation rather than exploring the emotional or psychological triggers, which are essential in managing hyperventilation caused by anxiety.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse evaluates the following arterial blood gas values in a client: pH 7.48, PaO2 98 mm Hg, PaCO2 28 mm Hg, and HCO3 22 mEq/L. Which client condition should the nurse correlate with these results?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anxiety-induced hyperventilation. The arterial blood gas values show a pH of 7.48 (alkalosis) with low PaCO2 (respiratory alkalosis), which is consistent with hyperventilation due to anxiety. HCO3 is within normal range, ruling out metabolic causes. A: Diarrhea and vomiting would lead to metabolic acidosis with low pH and decreased HCO3. C: COPD would typically present with respiratory acidosis (high PaCO2) and normal to high HCO3. D: Diabetic ketoacidosis and emphysema would show metabolic acidosis with low pH and low HCO3.
Question 3 of 9
After teaching a client to increase dietary potassium intake, a nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which dietary meal selection indicates the client correctly understands the teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it includes foods high in potassium. Raisins, whole wheat toast, and milk are good sources of potassium. Sausage might contain some potassium as well. A: This option lacks potassium-rich foods. B: While strawberries have some potassium, the overall meal lacks a sufficient amount. D: While oatmeal and peaches have potassium, coffee can actually inhibit potassium absorption.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is assessing clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which clients are at increased risk for hypophosphatemia? (Select all that do not apply.)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because antacids contain aluminum or magnesium, which can bind with phosphorus and decrease its absorption, leading to hypophosphatemia. Malnourishment (choice A) can cause hypophosphatemia due to inadequate intake, uncontrolled diabetes (choice B) is associated with hyperphosphatemia, and hyperparathyroidism (choice D) can lead to hyperphosphatemia due to increased calcium levels.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is caring for a client who has just had a central venous access line inserted. Which action should the nurse take next?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ensure an x-ray is completed to confirm placement. This is crucial to prevent complications such as pneumothorax or incorrect placement. X-ray confirmation is the gold standard to verify the central line's proper positioning before initiating any infusions. Option A is incorrect because starting the infusion without confirming placement can lead to serious complications. Option C is unnecessary for central line insertion. Option D is important but not the immediate next step as confirming placement takes precedence for patient safety.
Question 6 of 9
. A nurse assesses a client who had an intraosseous catheter placed in the left leg. Which assessment finding is of greatest concern?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A cool lower extremity can indicate impaired circulation due to the intraosseous catheter placement, leading to compartment syndrome or tissue necrosis. This finding requires immediate intervention to prevent serious complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the duration of catheter placement, poor vascular access, and the specific location of the catheter do not directly impact circulation and tissue perfusion as significantly as a cool lower extremity.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is caring for a client who has a serum calcium level of 14 mg/dL. Which provider order should the nurse implement first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Encourage oral fluid intake. When a client has hypercalcemia (serum calcium level of 14 mg/dL), the priority is to increase fluid intake to promote renal calcium excretion. This helps prevent complications such as renal calculi. The first step is to dilute the serum calcium by increasing fluid intake, which can help lower the serum calcium level. Connecting the client to a cardiac monitor (B) is not the priority as hypercalcemia affects the kidneys more than the heart. Assessing urinary output (C) is important but encouraging fluid intake is more immediate. Administering oral calcitonin (Calcimar) (D) is not the first action as it is a medication used for long-term management of hypercalcemia, not the immediate priority.
Question 8 of 9
A gerontologic nurse is teaching students about the high incidence and prevalence of dehydration in older adults. What factors contribute to this phenomenon? Select all that do not apply.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Increased conservation of sodium. Older adults tend to have an increased conservation of sodium, leading to fluid retention and decreased fluid intake, which can contribute to dehydration. A: Decreased kidney mass is incorrect because it is a factor that can contribute to decreased kidney function but not directly linked to dehydration. B: Decreased renal blood flow can impact kidney function but is not a direct cause of dehydration in older adults. C: Decreased excretion of potassium is not a factor that directly contributes to dehydration in older adults.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient in metabolic alkalosis. The patient has an NG tube to low intermittent suction for a diagnosis of bowel obstruction. What drug would the nurse expect to find on the medication orders?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cimetidine. In metabolic alkalosis, the blood pH is elevated due to excess bicarbonate. Cimetidine is a histamine-2 receptor antagonist that can help decrease gastric acid production, which can contribute to alkalosis. Maalox (B) is an antacid used to treat acid-related conditions, not alkalosis. Potassium chloride elixir (C) is used to correct potassium imbalances, not directly related to alkalosis. Furosemide (D) is a loop diuretic used to treat fluid retention and edema, not specifically indicated for metabolic alkalosis.