ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new diagnosis of heart failure. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention the nurse should include in the plan of care for a client with heart failure is to monitor the client's weight daily. Daily weight monitoring is essential to assess fluid balance and detect any signs of worsening heart failure. Limiting fluid intake to 1,500 mL per day (Choice A) may be appropriate in some cases, but it is not the initial priority for this client. Encouraging the client to walk every 2 hours (Choice B) is generally beneficial for mobility but may not be directly related to managing heart failure. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 L/min (Choice D) is a supportive measure for hypoxia but does not directly address heart failure management.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has osteoporosis about preventing fractures. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include is to perform weight-bearing exercises regularly. Weight-bearing exercises help maintain bone density and reduce the risk of fractures in clients with osteoporosis. Increasing intake of calcium-rich foods (Choice A) is also beneficial for bone health. Avoiding weight-bearing exercises (Choice B) is incorrect as these exercises are essential for strengthening bones. Avoiding calcium supplements (Choice D) may not be necessary if the client's dietary intake is inadequate.
Question 3 of 5
What is the best position for a patient in respiratory distress?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The best position for a patient in respiratory distress is the Semi-Fowler's position. This position promotes lung expansion and eases breathing by allowing the chest to expand more fully. The Trendelenburg position (choice B) where the patient's feet are higher than the head is not recommended in respiratory distress as it may cause increased pressure on the chest and reduced lung expansion. The prone position (choice C) lying on the stomach is also not optimal for respiratory distress as it can further compromise breathing. The supine position (choice D) lying flat on the back is not ideal as it may impair breathing by restricting chest expansion.
Question 4 of 5
A client is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory results indicates the client is receiving an effective dose of heparin?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An aPTT of 60 seconds indicates the client is receiving an effective dose of heparin. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) measures the time it takes for a clot to form, and a therapeutic range for heparin therapy is usually 1.5 to 2 times the control value, which is around 60-80 seconds. An INR of 1.5 is not related to heparin therapy, as it is commonly used to monitor warfarin therapy. Platelet count and potassium levels are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of heparin therapy.
Question 5 of 5
Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients taking furosemide?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss in the urine, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients taking furosemide and requires close monitoring. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, or hypercalcemia as frequently as it causes hypokalemia.
Similar Questions
Join Our Community Today!
Join Over 10,000+ nursing students using Nurselytic. Access Comprehensive study Guides curriculum for ATI-RN and 3000+ practice questions to help you pass your ATI-RN exam.
Subscribe for Unlimited Access