A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new diagnosis of heart failure. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

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ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam Questions

Question 1 of 9

A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new diagnosis of heart failure. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention the nurse should include in the plan of care for a client with heart failure is to monitor the client's weight daily. Daily weight monitoring is essential to assess fluid balance and detect any signs of worsening heart failure. Limiting fluid intake to 1,500 mL per day (Choice A) may be appropriate in some cases, but it is not the initial priority for this client. Encouraging the client to walk every 2 hours (Choice B) is generally beneficial for mobility but may not be directly related to managing heart failure. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 L/min (Choice D) is a supportive measure for hypoxia but does not directly address heart failure management.

Question 2 of 9

A nurse is planning care for a client who has a closed head injury and has an intraventricular catheter. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include to reduce the risk for infection?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the insertion site for redness. This intervention helps detect signs of infection early in clients with intraventricular catheters. Keeping the head of the bed elevated to 30 degrees is important for managing intracranial pressure but does not directly reduce the risk of infection. Administering IV antibiotics prophylactically is not recommended as a routine practice due to the risk of antibiotic resistance and should only be done based on culture results. Changing the catheter insertion site every 24 hours is unnecessary and increases the risk of introducing new pathogens.

Question 3 of 9

What is the best position for a patient in respiratory distress?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The best position for a patient in respiratory distress is the Semi-Fowler's position. This position promotes lung expansion and eases breathing by allowing the chest to expand more fully. The Trendelenburg position (choice B) where the patient's feet are higher than the head is not recommended in respiratory distress as it may cause increased pressure on the chest and reduced lung expansion. The prone position (choice C) lying on the stomach is also not optimal for respiratory distress as it can further compromise breathing. The supine position (choice D) lying flat on the back is not ideal as it may impair breathing by restricting chest expansion.

Question 4 of 9

A client with diabetes mellitus is receiving teaching from a nurse about foot care. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to trim toenails straight across. This instruction is crucial for clients with diabetes to prevent ingrown toenails, which can lead to infection. Soaking feet in warm water daily can increase the risk of skin breakdown. Cotton socks are recommended, but the priority in foot care for diabetes is proper nail trimming. Using a heating pad can also pose a burn risk for individuals with reduced sensation in their feet.

Question 5 of 9

A client with osteoporosis needs to increase calcium intake. Which of the following foods should be recommended by the nurse?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Broccoli. Broccoli is rich in calcium and is a suitable food to recommend to clients with osteoporosis to increase their calcium intake. Carrots, chicken, and bananas are not as high in calcium content compared to broccoli and therefore not the most appropriate choices for increasing calcium intake in clients with osteoporosis.

Question 6 of 9

A nurse is providing teaching to a client with asthma. Which of the following client statements indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because the client stating they should only take the inhaler when feeling short of breath indicates a need for further teaching. Clients with asthma should use their inhaler as prescribed, not just when short of breath. Choices A, B, and D demonstrate good asthma management practices. Choice A indicates understanding of using the albuterol inhaler before exercise to prevent exercise-induced symptoms. Choice B mentions the importance of not overusing the inhaler, which can indicate poor asthma control. Choice D shows awareness of rinsing the mouth after using a corticosteroid inhaler to prevent oral thrush.

Question 7 of 9

A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client's INR to determine the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. INR monitoring is crucial as it reflects the blood's ability to clot properly. Warfarin is commonly used as an anticoagulant, and maintaining the INR within the therapeutic range ensures that the client is protected from both clotting and bleeding events. Monitoring serum calcium levels, platelet count, or WBC count is not directly related to assessing the effectiveness of warfarin therapy.

Question 8 of 9

A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Elevated serum creatinine levels indicate impaired kidney function. As kidney disease progresses, the kidneys are less able to filter waste products, leading to an increase in creatinine levels. Therefore, a high serum creatinine level of 2.5 mg/dL should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not directly signify worsening kidney function in this context.

Question 9 of 9

How should a healthcare professional handle a patient who is refusing to take a prescribed medication?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Assessing the reasons for refusal is crucial as it allows the healthcare professional to understand the patient's concerns, which can range from fear of side effects to cost issues. By identifying the underlying reasons, the healthcare professional can tailor their approach to address these specific concerns, potentially improving medication adherence. Giving the medication immediately (Choice A) without understanding the patient's reasons for refusal can lead to further non-compliance. While documenting refusal (Choice C) is important for legal and tracking purposes, it does not directly address the patient's concerns. Exploring alternative treatment options (Choice D) may be considered after understanding the reasons for refusal, but it is not the initial step in managing medication refusal.

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