ATI RN
foundations of nursing test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse is performing a cultural assessment usingthe ETHNIC mnemonic for communication. Which area will the nurse assess for the “H”?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Healers. In the ETHNIC mnemonic, "H" stands for Healers, where the nurse assesses the individual's traditional healers, healthcare practices, and preferences for seeking healthcare. This is important in understanding the individual's cultural beliefs and practices related to health and treatment. Assessing "Health" (A) may be important, but it does not specifically address traditional healers. "History" (C) focuses on the individual's cultural background rather than healthcare practices. "Homeland" (D) pertains to the individual's place of origin, which is not directly related to healthcare communication.
Question 2 of 9
The organization of a patients care on the palliative care unit is based on interdisciplinary collaboration. How does interdisciplinary collaboration differ from multidisciplinary practice?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Interdisciplinary collaboration involves clinicians from different backgrounds integrating their separate plans of care, ensuring a holistic approach to patient care. This fosters a comprehensive understanding of the patient's needs and individualized care. In contrast, multidisciplinary practice involves clinicians working independently without integrating their plans, potentially leading to fragmented care. Choice A is incorrect as interdisciplinary collaboration does have a team leader to coordinate and facilitate communication among team members. Choice C is incorrect because while communication and cooperation are essential in interdisciplinary collaboration, the key distinction is the integration of different perspectives and plans of care. Choice D is incorrect as interdisciplinary collaboration goes beyond just medical expertise and patient preference, involving professionals from various disciplines working together to address all aspects of patient care.
Question 3 of 9
Following a motorcycle accident, a 17-year-old man is brought to the ED. What physical assessment findings related to the ear should be reported by the nurse immediately?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Correct Answer: D Rationale: 1. Clear, watery fluid draining from the ear post-accident indicates a possible cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak, a serious condition requiring immediate medical attention to prevent complications such as meningitis. 2. CSF leak can result from a basilar skull fracture, common in head injuries like motorcycle accidents. 3. Prompt reporting of this finding by the nurse is crucial for timely intervention and prevention of potential life-threatening complications. Summary: A: Visualizing the malleus during otoscopic examination is normal and not an immediate concern in this scenario. B: A pearly gray tympanic membrane is a normal finding and does not indicate a serious issue post-accident. C: Tenderness in the mastoid area may suggest injury but is not as urgent as clear, watery fluid drainage indicative of a CSF leak.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is reviewing the physicians notes from the patient who has just left the clinic. The nurse learns that the physician suspects a malignant breast tumor. On palpation, the mass most likely had what characteristic?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Mobility. A malignant breast tumor typically lacks mobility due to its fixed attachment to surrounding tissues. This characteristic is concerning for malignancy as it suggests invasive growth. Incorrect answers: A: Nontenderness - Tenderness does not reliably indicate malignancy or benignancy. B: A size of 5 mm - Tumor size alone does not determine malignancy. C: Softness and a regular shape - Malignant tumors are often firm and irregular in shape.
Question 5 of 9
An 86-year-old patient is experiencing uncontrollableleakage of urine with a strong desire to void and even leaks on the way to the toilet. Whichprioritynursing diagnosiswill the nurse include in the patient’s plan of care?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B - Urge urinary incontinence Rationale: 1. The patient's symptoms of strong desire to void and leakage on the way to the toilet indicate urge urinary incontinence. 2. Urge urinary incontinence is characterized by a sudden, strong need to urinate with involuntary leakage. Incorrect Choices: A: Functional urinary incontinence - This type is due to factors such as cognitive or physical impairment, not a strong urge to void. C: Impaired skin integrity - While important, this is a potential consequence of urinary incontinence, not the priority nursing diagnosis. D: Urinary retention - This would present with the inability to empty the bladder, not symptoms of frequent urge to void and leakage.
Question 6 of 9
A patient with HIV has a nursing diagnosis of Risk for Impaired Skin Integrity. What nursing intervention best addresses this risk?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Utilize a pressure-reducing mattress. This intervention is crucial for preventing pressure ulcers in patients at risk for impaired skin integrity, such as those with HIV. By redistributing pressure, a pressure-reducing mattress helps to alleviate pressure on vulnerable areas, reducing the risk of skin breakdown. Limiting physical activity (B) can lead to muscle atrophy and worsen skin integrity. Applying antibiotic ointment (C) may not address the root cause of skin breakdown. Avoiding synthetic fabrics (D) may be helpful in some cases, but it is not as effective as using a pressure-reducing mattress.
Question 7 of 9
To decrease glandular cellular activity and prostate size, an 83-year-old patient has been prescribed finasteride (Proscar). When performing patient education with this patient, the nurse should be sure to tell the patient what?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Finasteride is a medication that works by decreasing glandular cellular activity and reducing prostate size. Step 2: Dietary supplements can interact with finasteride, potentially affecting its effectiveness or causing adverse effects. Step 3: Reporting the planned use of dietary supplements to the physician ensures proper monitoring and adjustment of the treatment plan. Step 4: This communication promotes patient safety and optimal therapeutic outcomes. Therefore, choice A is correct as it emphasizes the importance of informing the physician about dietary supplement use to ensure the efficacy and safety of finasteride. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the mechanism of action or specific considerations of finasteride therapy.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is performing an initial assessment of an older adult resident who has just relocated to the long-term care facility. During the nurses interview with the patient, she admits that she drinks around 20 ounces of vodka every evening. What types of cancer does this put her at risk for? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Esophageal cancer. Alcohol consumption is a known risk factor for developing esophageal cancer. Ethanol, a component of alcohol, can damage the cells lining the esophagus and lead to the development of cancer over time. Incorrect choices: A: Malignant melanoma - Alcohol consumption is not directly linked to the development of malignant melanoma, a type of skin cancer. B: Brain cancer - There is no strong evidence linking alcohol consumption to an increased risk of brain cancer. C: Breast cancer - While excessive alcohol consumption is a risk factor for breast cancer, the primary association is with esophageal cancer in this case. E: Liver cancer - While alcohol abuse can lead to liver damage and increase the risk of liver cancer, the question specifies the types of cancer the patient is at risk for due to alcohol consumption, not the general risks associated with alcohol abuse.
Question 9 of 9
A 55-year-old man presents at the clinic complaining of erectile dysfunction. The patient has a history of diabetes. The physician orders tadalafil (Cialis) to be taken 1 hour before sexual intercourse. The nurse reviews the patients history prior to instructing the patient on the use of this medication. What disorder will contraindicate the use of tadalafil (Cialis)?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Retinopathy. Tadalafil (Cialis) is contraindicated in patients with retinopathy due to the potential risk of worsening vision problems. Retinopathy is a serious eye condition commonly associated with diabetes, and using tadalafil can lead to further complications in the eyes. It is crucial for patients with retinopathy to avoid medications that can exacerbate their eye condition. Incorrect choices: A: Cataracts - Cataracts do not contraindicate the use of tadalafil. Tadalafil does not have a direct negative impact on cataracts. C: Hypotension - Hypotension is not a contraindication for tadalafil use. In fact, tadalafil can cause a drop in blood pressure, so it should be used with caution in patients with hypotension. D: Diabetic nephropathy - Diabetic nephropathy is not a direct contraindication for tadalafil use. Tadalafil is generally