ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Mental Health Quiz Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse is participating as a speaker in a public workshop on the topic of promoting mental health in young and middle-aged adults. The nurse tells the audience that age, unemployment, and lower education are risk factors associated with mental illness. A woman raises her hand and asks, 'Does that mean because I only have a 10th grade education and am unemployed that I will develop a mental illness?' Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. The response acknowledges the increased chance of developing mental illness but does not definitively state that the woman will develop one. 2. It provides a balanced and realistic perspective without causing unnecessary fear or alarm. 3. It emphasizes the importance of recognizing risk factors without making absolute predictions. Summary of Other Choices: B. Incorrect because it deflects the question by making irrelevant statements about rural areas and large cities. C. Incorrect because it is overly pessimistic and lacks evidence-based support for claiming the woman will develop a mental illness. D. Incorrect because it oversimplifies the issue by solely focusing on medication as a solution, neglecting the complexity of mental health risks.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is caring for a client receiving IV moderate sedation with midazolam. The client has a respiratory rate of 9/min and is not responding to commands. Which of the following is an appropriate action by the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Implement positive pressure ventilation. This action is appropriate because the client's respiratory rate of 9/min indicates hypoventilation, which can lead to hypoxemia and respiratory arrest. Positive pressure ventilation helps support adequate oxygenation and ventilation. Placing the client in a prone position (choice A) can further compromise breathing. Nasopharyngeal suctioning (choice C) is not indicated unless airway obstruction is confirmed. Administering flumazenil (choice D) is contraindicated in clients with significant respiratory depression due to the risk of precipitating seizures.
Question 3 of 9
A client believes that their uterus was removed when they had a gynecological examination. Despite evidence on ultrasound that it is still intact, they hold firm to the belief. What delusion is the client experiencing?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: somatic. This client is experiencing a somatic delusion, which involves a false belief about the body or its functions. In this case, the client believes their uterus was removed despite evidence to the contrary. This delusion is specific to bodily functions or sensations. A: Grandiose delusions involve an exaggerated sense of importance or power, not related to bodily functions. B: Jealous delusions involve unfounded beliefs about a partner's infidelity, not related to bodily functions. C: Persecutory delusions involve beliefs of being targeted or persecuted, not related to bodily functions. In summary, the client's persistent belief about their uterus being removed despite evidence points to a somatic delusion, making it the correct choice over the other options.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is caring for a client with major depression. The client tells the nurse that she just isn't sure that life is worth living. The nurse documents which nursing diagnosis as the priority?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hopelessness related to symptoms of depression. This is the priority nursing diagnosis because the client expressing uncertainty about the value of life indicates a profound sense of hopelessness, which is a significant concern in major depression. By addressing hopelessness, the nurse can work towards improving the client's outlook on life and potential suicidal ideation. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as self-esteem, anxiety, and thought processes may be influenced by depression but do not directly address the client's expressed feelings of hopelessness and worthlessness. Hopelessness is the most critical issue to address in this scenario to ensure the client's safety and well-being.
Question 5 of 9
A nursing instructor is describing uncomplicated grief to a class. Which of the following would the instructor most likely include in the discussion?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because uncomplicated grief is a common response to loss that does not result in significant disruption to daily life or functioning. The instructor would likely include this in the discussion to emphasize that most individuals experiencing grief will go through a period of uncomplicated grief. It is important for students to understand that uncomplicated grief is a normal and expected part of the grieving process. Choice A is incorrect because the duration of grief does not determine whether it is uncomplicated or not. Choice C is incorrect because uncomplicated grief can be associated with various types of losses, not just death. Choice D is incorrect because uncomplicated grief can still be painful and disruptive, even though it is less severe than complicated grief.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following are examples of the therapeutic communication technique of"clarification"? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because clarification involves seeking understanding by asking for more information or explaining a vague statement. In this case, the statement "I'm not sure what you mean when you use the word fragile" demonstrates the use of clarification by seeking clarity on the meaning of a term used by the client. This technique helps the client to express themselves more clearly and aids in effective communication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not involve seeking clarification or further explanation from the client. Choice A focuses on exploring emotions related to a specific topic, choice C reflects an observation rather than seeking clarification, and choice D compares the client's mood without seeking clarification on any specific term or concept.
Question 7 of 9
A client tells the nurse that he is committed to trying to quit smoking. When teaching the client about smoking cessation, which of the following would the nurse include?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because smoking cessation success often requires a combination of interventions like counseling, medication, and support. This approach addresses physical and psychological aspects of addiction, increasing the chances of success. Choice B is incorrect as relapse rates are high in the first year after quitting. Choice C is incorrect as ear acupressure lacks strong scientific evidence for smoking cessation. Choice D is incorrect as education alone is usually insufficient for successful smoking cessation.
Question 8 of 9
What are the three components of evidence-based practice?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: research/client preference/nurse competency. Evidence-based practice involves integrating the best available research evidence with a patient's preferences and the nurse's clinical expertise. Research ensures interventions are based on proven effectiveness. Client preference acknowledges the importance of individual needs and values. Nurse competency ensures that care is delivered skillfully. Choice B (nurse experience/collaboration/teamwork) lacks the essential component of research evidence, which is crucial for evidence-based practice. While collaboration and teamwork are important, they do not encompass all three components. Choice C (research/client safety/client preference) includes client safety, which is essential but does not cover nurse competency, a key component of evidence-based practice. Choice D (nurse experience/client teaching/delegation) misses the mark by not including research evidence and client preference, which are integral to evidence-based practice. Delegation and client teaching are important but not part of the core components.
Question 9 of 9
Many people allow life circumstances to dictate their amount of sleep instead of recognizing sleep as a priority. Which statement will the nurse recognize as progress in the patient's sleep hygiene program?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because removing the television from the bedroom is a positive step towards improving sleep hygiene. TVs emit blue light, which can disrupt sleep. This action creates a better sleep environment. A: Going to bed when not sleepy can lead to frustration, making it harder to fall asleep. B: Consuming alcohol before bed can disrupt sleep patterns and quality. C: Taking daily naps can interfere with the ability to fall asleep at night and disrupt the sleep-wake cycle.