ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B with NGN Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse is monitoring a client following a thoracentesis. The nurse should identify which of the following manifestations as a complication and contact the provider immediately?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A nurse should identify an increased heart rate as a complication following a thoracentesis and contact the provider immediately. An increased heart rate may indicate a pneumothorax or other serious complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because decreased temperature, serosanguineous drainage, and discomfort at the puncture site are expected findings following a thoracentesis and do not indicate a significant complication requiring immediate provider notification.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is caring for a client who had a stroke involving the right cerebral hemisphere. The nurse should monitor for which of the following findings?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, poor impulse control. Right hemisphere strokes commonly affect judgment and safety awareness, leading to poor impulse control. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect for this scenario. Deficits in the right visual field are associated with left hemisphere strokes, while the inability to discriminate words and letters is typically seen with left hemisphere damage. Motor retardation is more common in strokes affecting the motor areas of the brain, not specifically related to right hemisphere strokes.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for codeine for cough suppression. What is the priority instruction?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to 'Move slowly when standing up.' Codeine can cause orthostatic hypotension, a drop in blood pressure when changing positions, leading to dizziness or fainting. By advising the client to move slowly when standing up, the nurse helps prevent falls or injuries due to sudden drops in blood pressure. Choices A, B, and D are important instructions as well but not the priority when considering the risk of orthostatic hypotension associated with codeine.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse manager is asked to select clients for early discharge from the unit following a mass casualty event. Which of the following clients should the nurse manager recommend?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The nurse manager should recommend the client awaiting a screening colonoscopy later that day for early discharge following a mass casualty event. This client is stable and not in immediate need of hospital care. Choices B, C, and D involve clients who require ongoing monitoring and care due to recent developments or treatments, making them unsuitable for early discharge during a mass casualty event.
Question 5 of 9
How should a healthcare professional respond to a patient experiencing hypoglycemia?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct response to a patient experiencing hypoglycemia is to administer 15g of fast-acting carbohydrates. This helps quickly increase the blood glucose levels in the patient, addressing the low blood sugar. Rechecking the blood glucose level in 15 minutes (Choice A) may delay necessary intervention, encouraging a high-protein snack (Choice B) is not recommended as it does not rapidly increase blood sugar levels, and administering glucagon if the patient is unconscious (Choice D) is typically done in severe cases of hypoglycemia when the patient is unable to eat or drink.
Question 6 of 9
A client is prescribed 1g of potassium phosphate IV to be infused continuously over 6 hr. Available is 1 g in 250 ml of dextrose 5%. What rate should the nurse set the IV pump to run at?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: To calculate the IV rate, divide the total volume by the total time in hours. In this case, 1 g in 250 ml is to be infused over 6 hours. Therefore, 250 ml / 6 hr = 42 ml/hr. This means the IV pump should be set to run at 42 ml/hr. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately calculate the infusion rate based on the provided information.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following foods is a good source of protein?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Cheddar cheese is indeed a good source of protein, providing a significant amount per serving. While chicken and tofu are also high in protein, cheddar cheese can be a beneficial source, especially for individuals looking for non-meat options. Almonds, while nutritious, are not as high in protein compared to the other options listed.
Question 8 of 9
Which intervention should be prioritized for a client experiencing panic-level anxiety?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: During panic-level anxiety, the priority is to provide reassurance and remain with the client. This intervention helps to offer immediate support, comfort, and a sense of safety to the client. Postponing health teaching until anxiety subsides (Choice A) is not appropriate as the client's immediate emotional needs are more critical. Encouraging participation in group therapy (Choice B) may be beneficial in the long term but is not the priority during a panic attack. While monitoring vital signs (Choice C) is important, providing reassurance and support take precedence in managing panic-level anxiety.
Question 9 of 9
A healthcare provider is reviewing a client's lab results. Which of the following lab values should the provider report?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sodium 126 mEq/L. A sodium level of 126 mEq/L is below the normal range, indicating hyponatremia, which can have serious health implications and should be reported to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and intervention. Choices A, B, and D are within or close to the normal ranges for magnesium, potassium, and chloride, respectively, and do not require immediate reporting as they are not significantly abnormal.