ATI RN
ATI Capstone Pharmacology Assessment 2 Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse is giving dietary instructions to a client receiving levodopa. Which of the following food items should be avoided by the client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Goat yogurt and other high-protein foods should be avoided when taking levodopa because protein can interfere with the absorption of the medication, reducing its effectiveness. Whole grain cereal, asparagus, and apples are not known to interact with levodopa. Therefore, goat yogurt is the food item to avoid.
Question 2 of 9
Action of anxiolytic agents:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Anxiolytic agents are drugs that help relieve anxiety. Benzodiazepines are a class of drugs commonly used as anxiolytics due to their ability to enhance the effects of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA), a neurotransmitter that inhibits brain activity. By increasing the inhibitory actions of GABA, benzodiazepines can produce calming and sedative effects, making them effective in treating anxiety disorders. Morphine, promethazine, atropine sulfate, and hyoscine are not typically used as anxiolytic agents.
Question 3 of 9
A 52-year-old woman with a history of recurrent urinary tract infections complains of easy bruising as well as chronic fatigue. She is maintained on daily antibiotic prophylaxis with trimethoprim. Which of the following hematologic effects is likely as a result of long-term therapy with trimethoprim?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Trimethoprim's folate antagonism with long-term use causes megaloblastic anemia . Bruising and fatigue reflect impaired erythropoiesis. Aplastic anemia , microcytic , normocytic , and pernicious (E) don't fit. This reversible effect requires folate supplementation.
Question 4 of 9
The number of people with hypertension in the United States is estimated to be
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most recent data indicates that approximately 45% of adults in the United States have hypertension. With an estimated total adult population of around 230 million in the U.S., this would mean that roughly 50 million people have hypertension.
Question 5 of 9
A 74-year-old professional golfer has chest pain that occurs toward the end of his golfing games. He says the pain usually goes away after one or two sublingual nitroglycerin tablets and rest. What type of angina is he experiencing?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The 74-year-old professional golfer is likely experiencing Prinzmetal™s angina, also known as variant angina. This type of angina is characterized by episodes of chest pain that occur at rest or during minimal physical exertion. It is caused by a spasm in the coronary arteries, leading to a temporary reduction or cessation of blood flow to the heart muscle. The chest pain associated with Prinzmetal™s angina can be severe and is often relieved by sublingual nitroglycerin, as described by the golfer. Additionally, the fact that the pain occurs towards the end of his golfing games suggests that it may be triggered by stress or exertion, common triggers for coronary artery spasm in Prinzmetal's angina.
Question 6 of 9
When administering the opioid Morphine to a patient, it is given in doses of
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct dosing regimen for Morphine typically ranges from 2-5 mg every 3-4 hours as needed for pain. This dosing schedule allows for effective management of pain while monitoring for potential side effects and adjusting the dosage according to the patient's response. Options B, C, and D have dosing regimens that are not within the typical range for Morphine administration and could lead to inappropriate dosing and potential harm to the patient.
Question 7 of 9
The physician has prescribed haloperidol (Haldol) for the patient with schizophrenia. What is the priority patient outcome?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Haloperidol, a conventional antipsychotic, treats schizophrenia by reducing positive symptoms like hallucinations, but its efficacy depends on adherence. The priority outcome is medication compliance, as relapse is common without consistent use, undermining all other goals. Adequate fluids and fiber mitigate side effects (e.g., constipation) but are secondary to ensuring treatment continuity. Decreased hallucinations is a desired effect, not an outcome ensuring it happens. Restlessness indicates side effects (e.g., akathisia), not a goal. Compliance is foundational, as schizophrenia's chronic nature requires long-term management, making choice B the nurse's primary focus for successful therapy.
Question 8 of 9
As you are preparing morning medications, the patient says, 'I have had loose stools all night long.' Your patient has scheduled docusate at 0900. What is the priority action?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Docusate is a stool softener used to prevent constipation. If the patient is already experiencing loose stools, administering docusate could exacerbate the condition, leading to diarrhea or dehydration. The nurse should hold the medication and inform the healthcare provider to reassess the need for docusate. Increasing the IV flow rate (C) or the dose (D) is inappropriate in this situation.
Question 9 of 9
The patient asks the nurse why she needs to continue using table salt because her prescribed lithium (Eskalith) is a salt. What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Lithium's renal clearance depends on sodium levels; low sodium causes lithium retention, risking toxicity (e.g., tremors, confusion). 'You must use table salt or your kidneys will retain lithium' explains this, ensuring safe levels. Choice A confuses with sea salt. Choice C risks toxicity by reacting late. Choice D downplays sodium's role. B educates accurately, making it the best response.