ATI RN
ATI Capstone Pharmacology Assessment 2 Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is giving dietary instructions to a client receiving levodopa. Which of the following food items should be avoided by the client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Goat yogurt and other high-protein foods should be avoided when taking levodopa because protein can interfere with the absorption of the medication, reducing its effectiveness. Whole grain cereal, asparagus, and apples are not known to interact with levodopa. Therefore, goat yogurt is the food item to avoid.
Question 2 of 5
A 29-year-old man who is a known alcoholic is able to purchase phencyclidine from another user of this substance. He takes a 'triple dose' of the substance. Which of the following effects is likely to be observed?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: PCP overdose (triple dose) causes dissociative effects; eyes remain open , with nystagmus common. Loss of consciousness needs higher doses. Numbness occurs, but open eyes are hallmark. Normal gait and speech (E) contradict ataxia. PCP's profile fits this.
Question 3 of 5
A 30-year-old male patient is brought to the ER with the following symptoms attributed to a drug overdose: HR and BP, mydriasis, behavioral excitation, aggressiveness, paranoia, and hallucinations. Of the following drugs, which one is most likely to be responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Amphetamine overdose causes sympathomimetic toxicity: elevated heart rate (HR) and blood pressure (BP) from catecholamine release, mydriasis via alpha-adrenergic stimulation, and CNS excitation—aggressiveness, paranoia, and hallucinations—due to dopamine and norepinephrine excess. Ethanol overdose typically depresses CNS, causing sedation, not excitation, despite possible tachycardia. Fentanyl, an opioid, leads to respiratory depression and miosis, opposite to these symptoms. Flunitrazepam, a benzodiazepine, sedates and lowers BP. Marijuana might cause paranoia but not this full sympathomimetic profile. Amphetamine's stimulant properties directly explain the cardiovascular, pupillary, and psychiatric symptoms, making it the most likely culprit in this acute presentation.
Question 4 of 5
The physician ordered a brand name drug for the client, paroxetine (Paxil). After taking this medication for a year, the client tells the nurse that it is no longer working. What is the best assessment of the nurse at this time?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Paroxetine's effectiveness waning after a year suggests possible drug interactions reducing its levels or efficacy, a common issue needing assessment via medication review. Needing a change assumes a conclusion without evidence. Paxil and paroxetine are the same (brand vs. generic), making that question moot. Beck assessment evaluates depression, not drug failure. Interactions align with pharmacokinetic principles, offering a proactive step to identify culprits like enzyme inducers, critical for adjusting therapy.
Question 5 of 5
The physician has prescribed haloperidol (Haldol) for the patient with schizophrenia. What is the priority patient outcome?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Haloperidol, a conventional antipsychotic, treats schizophrenia by reducing positive symptoms like hallucinations, but its efficacy depends on adherence. The priority outcome is medication compliance, as relapse is common without consistent use, undermining all other goals. Adequate fluids and fiber mitigate side effects (e.g., constipation) but are secondary to ensuring treatment continuity. Decreased hallucinations is a desired effect, not an outcome ensuring it happens. Restlessness indicates side effects (e.g., akathisia), not a goal. Compliance is foundational, as schizophrenia's chronic nature requires long-term management, making choice B the nurse's primary focus for successful therapy.