ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023 NGN Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is getting ready to transfer a client diagnosed with schizophrenia to a partial hospital program. What is the next best step before that client is discharged?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because contacting the partial program and reviewing the client's history with the staff ensures a smooth transition and continuity of care. This step allows the receiving facility to be prepared to meet the client's needs effectively. Option A and B do not involve coordination with the receiving program, risking discontinuity of care. Option D includes providing records to the program but lacks the crucial step of reviewing the client's history with the staff beforehand, which could lead to potential misunderstandings or gaps in care.
Question 2 of 5
A community mental health nurse has worked for months to establish a relationship with a delusional, suspicious patient. The patient recently lost employment and could no longer afford prescribed medications. The patient says, "Only a traitor would make me go to the hospital." Select the nurse's best initial intervention.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it demonstrates respect for the patient's autonomy and builds trust in the nurse-patient relationship. By contacting resources to provide medications without charge, the nurse addresses the patient's financial constraint while honoring their wishes to avoid the hospital. This intervention promotes continuity of care and supports the patient's well-being. Option B is incorrect because it does not address the patient's immediate need for medications and may not align with the patient's preferences. Option C is inappropriate as hospitalization should be a last resort and may not be necessary in this case. Option D is not the best initial intervention as it does not directly address the patient's concerns about being perceived as a traitor.
Question 3 of 5
Reviewing prescription medications in the discharge instructions for a patient with a diagnosis of major depression, the nurse would caution the patient about which over-the-counter supplement(s)? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: St. John's wort. St. John's wort can interact with antidepressant medications, leading to serotonin syndrome or decreasing the effectiveness of the antidepressants. It is important for the nurse to caution the patient about potential interactions. Fish oil (A), SAMe (B), and melatonin (D) do not have significant interactions with antidepressant medications, making them safe options for patients with major depression.
Question 4 of 5
A female patient, who is in her late 30s, is describing her home life to the nurse. The nurse determines that the patient is a member of the sandwich generation based on which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the term "sandwich generation" refers to individuals who are simultaneously caring for their own young children and aging parents. In this scenario, the patient has a young adult child at home and an elderly parent to care for, indicating that she fits the definition of the sandwich generation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not meet the criteria for being part of the sandwich generation. Choice B states that the young adult child is married and living away from home, which means the patient is not actively caring for the child. Choice C mentions that the patient's young adult child is away at college and without living parents, which also does not align with the sandwich generation definition. Choice D indicates that the patient has no responsibilities regarding her children or parents, which would not qualify her as part of the sandwich generation.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is developing a plan of care for a client with chronic pain caused by osteoarthritis. The client's pain has been severe and prolonged. Which of the following would the nurse identify as a priority assessment?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Depression. Depression is a common comorbidity with chronic pain and can exacerbate the client's overall condition. The nurse should prioritize assessing for depression as it can impact the client's pain management, adherence to treatment, and overall quality of life. Grief, panic disorder, and bulimia are important considerations but may not directly impact the client's chronic pain management as significantly as depression. It is crucial for the nurse to address the client's mental health needs to provide holistic care and improve outcomes.