A nurse is formulating a diagnosis for a client who is reliving a brutal mugging that took place several months ago. The client is crying uncontrollably and states that he 'can’t live with this fear.' Which of the following diagnoses for this client is correctly written?

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Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 10th Edition Test Bank Quizlet Questions

Question 1 of 9

A nurse is formulating a diagnosis for a client who is reliving a brutal mugging that took place several months ago. The client is crying uncontrollably and states that he 'can’t live with this fear.' Which of the following diagnoses for this client is correctly written?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Post-trauma syndrome related to being attacked. This diagnosis accurately reflects the client's symptoms of reliving the traumatic event, crying uncontrollably, and expressing fear. Post-trauma syndrome encompasses a range of symptoms following a traumatic event, such as flashbacks, anxiety, and emotional distress. The other choices are incorrect because they are either too vague (B: Psychological overreaction) or do not capture the specific nature of the client's symptoms (C: Needs assistance coping; D: Mental distress). Therefore, option A is the most appropriate diagnosis based on the client's presentation.

Question 2 of 9

Which of the following is usually the first symptom of a cataract that the nurse would expect a patient to report during assessment?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Blurring of vision. This is typically the first symptom of a cataract because the clouding of the lens causes light to scatter, leading to blurred vision. Dry eyes (A) and eye pain (C) are not typically associated with cataracts. Loss of peripheral vision (D) is more commonly seen in conditions like glaucoma. In summary, blurring of vision is the hallmark symptom of cataracts due to lens clouding, distinguishing it from other eye conditions.

Question 3 of 9

A nurse is providing education to a patient about self-administering subcutaneous injections. The patient demonstrates the self-injection. Which type of indicator did the nurse evaluate?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Health behavior. Evaluating the patient's demonstration of self-injection assesses their ability to perform a specific health-related action. This choice focuses on the patient's actions and behaviors related to their health, aligning with the scenario provided. Choice A: Health status is incorrect because it refers to the patient's current physical condition, not their ability to perform a specific health action. Choice C: Psychological self-control is incorrect as it pertains to the patient's ability to regulate their emotions and impulses, not their ability to self-administer injections. Choice D: Health service utilization is incorrect as it relates to the frequency and pattern of healthcare services used by the patient, not their ability to perform a specific health behavior.

Question 4 of 9

A brain abscess is a collection of pus within the substance of the brain and is caused by:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because a brain abscess can be caused by direct invasion of the brain, spread of infection by other organs, and spread of infection from nearby sites. Direct invasion can occur from trauma or surgery, while infections from other organs like the lungs or heart can travel through the bloodstream to the brain. Infections from nearby sites such as the sinuses or ears can also spread to the brain. Therefore, all of these mechanisms can lead to the formation of a brain abscess. Choices A, B, and C alone do not encompass all the possible causes of a brain abscess, making D the correct comprehensive answer.

Question 5 of 9

Which of the following would the nurse evaluate as laboratory data that support the occurrence of AIDS?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 200 CD4+ cells. In AIDS, the immune system is severely compromised, leading to a decrease in CD4+ T cells. A CD4+ count below 200 cells/mm3 is a key indicator of AIDS, as it signifies advanced immunodeficiency. Choices A, B, and C all have CD4+ cell counts above 200, which would not support the occurrence of AIDS. Therefore, the nurse would evaluate a CD4+ count of 200 cells as laboratory data that support the occurrence of AIDS.

Question 6 of 9

Which of the ff vitamins does a client lack if there is a problem with the absorption of calcium?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Vitamin D. Vitamin D is essential for the absorption of calcium in the intestines. Without sufficient vitamin D, the body cannot effectively absorb calcium, leading to potential issues with calcium absorption. Vitamin A (choice A) is not directly involved in calcium absorption. Vitamin B (choice B) and Vitamin C (choice C) also do not play a significant role in calcium absorption. Therefore, the lack of Vitamin D is the most likely cause for problems with calcium absorption.

Question 7 of 9

Which of the ff. subjective data questions would assist the nurse in assessing the patient’s eye health?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Asking about seeing halos around lights is relevant to assessing the patient's eye health as it could indicate conditions like glaucoma or cataracts. Upper respiratory infections (A), riding in a car (B), and scuba diving (C) are not directly related to eye health assessment. By focusing on symptoms directly related to the eyes, the nurse can gather relevant information for a more accurate assessment.

Question 8 of 9

The physician orders local application of epinephrine 1:1000 solution to treat a nosebleed. The patient asks how this will help. Which of the ff. responses by the nurse is best?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Epinephrine, when applied locally, constricts blood vessels, reducing blood flow and slowing down bleeding. This vasoconstrictive effect helps control nosebleeds effectively. Choice A is incorrect because although epinephrine can raise blood pressure, it is not the primary mechanism for treating nosebleeds. Choice B is incorrect as epinephrine's bronchodilation effect is not relevant in this context. Choice C is incorrect as while promoting blood clotting is beneficial, epinephrine primarily acts by vasoconstriction to control bleeding.

Question 9 of 9

A patient verbalizes a low pain level of 2 out of 10 but exhibits extreme facial grimacing while moving around in bed. What is the nurse’s initial action in response to these observations?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct initial action is to choose C: Ask the patient about the facial grimacing with movement. This is important as the patient's non-verbal cues (facial grimacing) contradict their verbal pain report. By directly addressing the discrepancy, the nurse can gather more accurate information about the patient's pain experience and potentially identify any underlying issues causing the discrepancy. Proceeding to the next patient's room (A) without addressing the discrepancy would neglect the patient's needs. Assuming the patient does not want pain medicine (B) based solely on the verbal report without further assessment is premature. Administering pain medication (D) without clarifying the situation may lead to inappropriate or ineffective treatment. Therefore, option C is the most appropriate initial action to ensure comprehensive and individualized patient care.

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