ATI RN
Leadership Nursing Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse is focusing on improving the ability to multitask without losing focus and to turn problems into opportunities. Which of the following leadership theories describes the nurse’s focus?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Transformational leadership theory. This theory emphasizes the leader's ability to inspire and motivate followers to exceed their own self-interests for the good of the organization. In this scenario, the nurse's focus on improving multitasking and problem-solving aligns with the transformational leader's goal of empowering others to innovate and tackle challenges. Emotional intelligence (A) focuses on understanding and managing emotions, not specifically on multitasking or problem-solving. Motivation theory (B) addresses the factors that drive behavior but doesn't necessarily encompass multitasking and problem-solving skills. Situational leadership theory (C) emphasizes adapting leadership style to fit the situation, not specifically on improving multitasking and problem-solving abilities.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following should be included in a discussion of advance directives with new nurse graduates?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: The Patient Self-Determination Act requires healthcare providers, including nurses, to inform clients of their right to create an advance directive. Step 2: New nurse graduates need to understand this legal requirement to comply with ethical and legal standards. Step 3: By discussing this requirement with new nurse graduates, they will be better equipped to provide information and support to clients regarding advance directives. Step 4: This step is crucial in ensuring that clients' autonomy and right to self-determination are respected. Step 5: Option A is the correct answer as it directly relates to the legal obligation of nurses in discussing advance directives with clients. Summary: Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not address the specific legal requirement outlined in the Patient Self-Determination Act for informing clients about their right to create an advance directive.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is focusing on improving the ability to multitask without losing focus and to turn problems into opportunities. Which of the following leadership theories describes the nurse’s focus?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Transformational leadership theory. This theory emphasizes the leader's ability to inspire and motivate followers to exceed their own self-interests for the good of the organization. In this scenario, the nurse's focus on improving multitasking and problem-solving aligns with the transformational leader's goal of empowering others to innovate and tackle challenges. Emotional intelligence (A) focuses on understanding and managing emotions, not specifically on multitasking or problem-solving. Motivation theory (B) addresses the factors that drive behavior but doesn't necessarily encompass multitasking and problem-solving skills. Situational leadership theory (C) emphasizes adapting leadership style to fit the situation, not specifically on improving multitasking and problem-solving abilities.
Question 4 of 9
If a staff member does not respond to discipline, the manager must ______ employment.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Terminate. If a staff member is not responding to discipline, it indicates a serious issue with their behavior or performance. Terminating their employment may be necessary to maintain discipline and uphold organizational standards. Confronting (B) and describing behavior (C) are initial steps in addressing the issue but may not be effective if the staff member continues to be non-responsive. Determining awareness (D) of the policy is important but does not directly address the lack of response to discipline. Terminating employment may be a last resort to maintain the integrity of the organization.
Question 5 of 9
When addressing a policy violation, what is one of the initial steps to take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Determine whether the employee is aware of the policy. This is the initial step to ensure fairness and due process. By confirming the employee's knowledge of the policy, you can address any potential misunderstandings or gaps in communication. Terminating the employee (A) without first verifying their awareness would be hasty and unfair. Confronting the employee (B) may be necessary later, but not as an initial step. Disciplining the employee immediately (C) without understanding their knowledge of the policy could lead to unnecessary conflicts and legal implications. Thus, D is the most appropriate initial step in addressing a policy violation.
Question 6 of 9
A 54-year-old patient is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis. Which admission order should the nurse implement first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the priority in treating diabetic ketoacidosis is fluid resuscitation to address dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Infusing 1 liter of normal saline per hour helps to restore intravascular volume and corrects electrolyte abnormalities. Choice B (sodium bicarbonate) is not recommended routinely in DKA treatment as it may worsen metabolic acidosis. Choice C (IV push insulin) can lead to hypoglycemia and should not be the initial intervention. Choice D (insulin infusion) is important but should be started after fluid resuscitation to avoid rapid drops in blood glucose levels.
Question 7 of 9
A client with frequent tonic-clonic seizures is being admitted. What action should the nurse add to the client's plan of care?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Have a tongue depressor available at the client's bedside. This is important to prevent the client from biting their tongue during a seizure, which can lead to injury or airway obstruction. Placing blankets around the bed (choice A) is not a priority during a seizure. Refraining from using restraints (choice B) is correct, as restraints can cause harm during a seizure. Positioning the client laterally (choice C) is recommended after the seizure has ended, not during the seizure itself.
Question 8 of 9
After change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the patient with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome showing signs of poor skin turgor and dry oral mucosa is at risk for severe dehydration and potential complications. Assessing this patient first is crucial to address their immediate needs. Choice A is incorrect as the 19-year-old with possible dawn phenomenon can be assessed after the patient with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome who is at higher risk. Choice B is incorrect as a blood glucose reading of 230 mg/dL in a 35-year-old with type 1 diabetes is high but not indicative of an immediate life-threatening situation compared to severe dehydration. Choice D is incorrect as the 68-year-old with peripheral neuropathy and foot pain, while in discomfort, does not present an immediate threat to their life like severe dehydration does in a patient with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome.
Question 9 of 9
One reason for conducting a comprehensive medical exam on an applicant is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because conducting a comprehensive medical exam helps protect the organization from potential legal actions related to discriminatory hiring practices. It ensures that the applicant meets the job's physical requirements and doesn't pose a health risk to themselves or others in the workplace. Choice B is incorrect as medical exams are not typically required after interviews. Choice C is incorrect as not all jurisdictions mandate comprehensive medical exams. Choice D is incorrect as screening for disabilities should be done through non-discriminatory means, not solely through medical exams.